MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

It was found that water from a river was contaminated with Coliform bacteria. Which one of the following pollutant might have got mixed with the water?

(A) Fertilizer run off
(B) Industrial waste
(C) Pesticides
(D) Human faecal matter.
Answer:
(D) Human faecal matter.

Explanation:
Coliform bacteria is a group of bacteria found in human intestine whose presence in water indicates contamination by disease causing micro-organisms.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 2.

Which one of the following stakeholders of forests causes the maximum damage to forest?

(A) People who live in or around the forest.
(B) The forest department of the government.
(C) The wildlife and native enthusiasts.
(D) The industrialists.
Answer:
(D) The industrialists.

Explanation:
Industrialists who use various forests produce for their factories causes the maximum damage to forest.

Question 3.

Soil fertility is determined by its ability to:

(A) Decay organic matter
(B) Hold organic matter
(C) Hold water
(D) Support life
Answer:
(D) Support life

Explanation:
Soil fertility is the ability of the soil to supply essential plant nutrients and soil water in adequate amounts for plant growth and reproduction, thereby support life.

Question 4.

The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance/commodity that is :

(A) present only on land.
(B) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind.
(C) a man-made substance placed in nature.
(D) available only in the forest.
Answer:
(B) a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind.

Explanation:
Natural resource is a gift of nature which is very useful to mankind. Option (C) can be easily ruled out because natural resources are not man-made. Option (A) can be ruled out, because natural resources are present everywhere.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 5

The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are

(A) recycle, regenerate, reuse
(B) reduce, regenerate, reuse
(C) reduce, reuse, redistribute
(D) reduce, recycle, reuse
Answer:
(D) reduce, recycle, reuse

Explanation:
The three R’s that will help us to conserve natural resources for long term use are reduce, recycle and reuse.

Question 6.

Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that correctly describe the concept of biodiversity.

(i) Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area
(ii) Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area
(iii) Biodiversity is greater in a forest
(iv) Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Both flora and fauna are included in biodiversity. Biodiversity is in greater degree in a forest. Hence, options (ii) and (iv) are incorrect.

Question 7.

The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is

(A) disposal of unbumt corpses into water.
(B) discharge of effluents from electroplating industries.
(C) washing of clothes.
(D) immersion of ashes.
Answer:
(A) disposal of unbumt corpses into water.

Explanation:
Coliform bacteria mainly come from human excreta, They can be present in unburnt corpses. Waste referred in other options does not contain human excreta.

Question 8.

A successful forest conservation strategy should involve

(A) protection of animals at the highest trophic level.
(B)protection of only consumers.
(C) protection of only herbivores.
(D) comprehensive programme to protect all the physical and biological components.
Answer:
(D) comprehensive programme to protect all the physical and biological components.

Explanation:
Protection of organisms at a single trophic level cannot maintain balance of our ecosystem. Hence, other options are ruled out.

Question 9.

Which one of the following is responsible for the sustenance of underground water?

(A) Loss of vegetation cover
(B) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(C) Pollution from urban wastes
(D) Afforestation
Answer:
(D) Afforestation

Explanation:
Afforestation (plantation of trees) will save ground water from getting depleted.

Question 10.

Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum:

(i) increases air pollution.
(ii) increases efficiency of machines.
(iii) reduces global warming.
(iv) produce poisonous gases.

The correct option is:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (i) and (iv)

Explanation:
Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum increases air pollution and produce poisonous gases.

Question 11.

Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are:

(A) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(B) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(C) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(D) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near
Answer:
(D) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near

Explanation:
Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B led to the given observation.

Question 12.

Opposition to the construction of large dams is due to

(A) social reasons.
(B) economic reasons.
(C) environmental reasons.
(D) all the above.
Answer:
(D) all the above.

Explanation:
Dam construction adversely affects local flora and fauna by raising social, economic and environmental problems.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 13.

Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel.

(A) Wind, ocean and coal
(B) Kerosene, wind and tide
(C) Wind, wood, sun
(D) Petroleum, wood, sun
Answer:
(C) Wind, wood, sun

Explanation:
Wind, sun and wood are natural resources.

Question 14.

It is important to make small check dams across the flooded gullies because they

(i) hold water for irrigation.
(ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion.
(iii) recharge ground water.
(iv) hold water permanently.

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(B) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
Small check dams or temporary dams across the flooded gullies helps to prevent adverse effects of flooding on nearby areas and land.

Question 15.

Ground water will not be depleted due to

(A) afforestation.
(B) thermal power plants.
(C) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall.
(D) cropping of high water demanding crops.
Answer:
(A) afforestation.

Explanation:
Plantation of tree is called as afforestation. Afforestation conserves the soil moisture and allows the run-off water to infiltrate into ground water thereby adding to ground water recharge.

Question 16.

Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient structures that are examples for

(A) grain storage.
(B) wood storage.
(C) water harvesting.
(D) soil conservation.
Answer:
(C) water harvesting.

Explanation:
Khadins, Bundhis, Ahara and Kattas are ancient water conservation practices.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): We need to conserve natural resources.
Reason (R): Natural resources are limited.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
We need to manage natural resources because natural resources are limited. Human population is increasing at a tremendous rate and utilization of natural resources is increasing at an exponential rate. Therefore, we need to conserve resources for future generations.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Reuse is better than recycle.
Reason (R): Recycle prevents environmental pollution.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Reuse is better than recycle because it saves energy by using material again without any changes and also, it prevents environmental pollution.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The development which can be maintained for a long time without undue damage to the environment is called sustainable development.
Reason (R): It provide the economic well being to the present and future generation.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Sustainable development is the development which can be maintained for a longtime without undue damage to the environment. It has two main objectives: To provide economic well being to the present and future generations and to maintain a healthy environment and life support system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Chipko Andolan was done by women of Reni village.
Reason (R): Chipko Andolan was done to protect wild life.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Chipko movement was started in early 1970s in village Reni in Garhwal by the women of Uttarakhand to stop cutting of forest trees of their area.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Wildlife should be conserved.
Reason (R): Human activities cause several plants and animals to extinct.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Wild life is found in forests. Over a period of time, wildlife has become extinct because of certain human activities like deforestation, hunting, poaching etc.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Coliform is a group of bacteria found in human stomach.
Reason (R): Presence of coliform in water indicates contamination by disease causing microorganisms.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Coliform is a group of bacteria found in human intestine whose presence in water indicates contamination by disease causing micro-organisms.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Water is a valuable resource.
Reason (R): Turn off the taps when not in use.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water is a valuable resource. So, we need to conserve it by turning off the taps when not in use.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Coal and petroleum are categorised as natural resources, so should be used judiciously.
Reason (R): They are formed from the degradation of biomass subjected to various biological and geological processes over a million of years.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Coal and petroleum are formed from the degradation of biomass subjected to various biological and geological processes over a million of years. Thus, cannot be manufactured by humAnswer:Therefore, coal and petroleum are categorised as natural resource.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Water harvesting is the method to capture every trickle of water that falls on the land.
Reason (R): Water harvesting recharges wells and ground water.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water harvesting is a technique of capturing rain water when it falls and taking measure to keep the water clean. It recharges wells/ground water and provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Bundhis are found in Rajasthan.
Reason (R): Bundhis are traditional water harvesting structures.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Bundhis are found in Madhya Pradesh whereas in Rajasthan, Khadins and nadis are found. They all are ancient water conservation practices.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Observe the following diagram and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 1
Question 1.

Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.

(A) RefuseChoose products that use less packaging
(B) ReduceGive unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools
(C) ReuseNot using single use plastic
(D) RepurposeMaking flower pot from used plastic bottle

Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Reusing a waste material to make something that is useful is called repurposing. Using a plastic bottle to make a flower pot is thus repurposing.

Question 2.

Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

(A) recycled papers may release color /dyes on food items
(B) recycled papers are not absorbent
(C) recycled papers can cause infection due to release of methane
(D) recycled papers are costly
Answer:
(B) recycled papers are not absorbent

Explanation:
It is because decomposition of paper produces chemicals like methane which may cause infection.

Question 3.

According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct information

Wet wasteDry wasteHazardous waste
(A) Cooked food, vegetable peelsUsed bulbs, fluorescent lampsPlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard
(B) Coffee and tea powder, garden wastePlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboardExpired medicines, razors, paint cans
(C) Leftover food, vegetable peelsCoffee and tea powder, garden wasteInsect  repellents,cleaning solutions
(D) Uncooked food, tea leavesOld crockery, frying pansCoffee and tea powder, garden waste

Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Coffee and tea powder, garden waste are recyclable wet waste, plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard are kitchen dry waste while expired medicines, razors, paint cans are domestic hazardous wastes.

Question 4.

Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.

(i) less waste goes to the landfills
(ii) better for public health and the environment
(iii) help in reducing the waste
(iv) resulting in deterioration of a waste picker’s health

(A) both (i) and (ii)
(B) both (i) and (iii)
(C) both (ii) and (iii)
(D) both (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) both (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Waste segregation is included in law because it is much easier to recycle. Effective segregation of wastes means that less waste goes to landfill which makes it cheaper and better for people and the environment. It is also important to segregate for public health.

Question 5.

When recycling a plastic water bottle, what should you do with the cap?

(A) The cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin
(B) Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in a recycling bin
(C) Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in the garbage can
(D) Recycle the cap separately.
Answer:
(A) The cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin

Explanation:
The bottle cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin.

II. Study the passage and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
Management and conservation of natural resources means the scientific utilization of resources. This method yields the greatest sustainable benefit of available resources to the present generations, while maintaining its potential to meet the needs and aspirations of future generations. In recent years, it has been observed that most of our natural resources are being depleted. It is mainly due to the over exploitation of resources as a result of changing lifestyle, over population and technological development. Thus the need of the hour is to wisely manage our natural resources and minimize their wastage. For this, we should remember the 3 R’s that can save environment.

Question 1.

Which of the following R’s is not used to save the environment?

(A) Reduce
(B) Remove
(C) Recycle
(D) Reuse
Answer:
(B) Remove

Explanation:
Remove is not the 3 R’s that can g save the environment.

Question 2.

Conservation is:

(A) Proper use of natural resources
(B) Protection of natural resources
(C) Utilisation of natural resources
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(A) Proper use of natural resources

Explanation:
Proper management of natural resources is essential for judicial use and conservation of natural resources.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 3.

If we are using discarded items of paper, plastic and sending them to the respective industries for making useful objects. Then which R to save the environment we are following?

(A) Reuse
(B) Remove
(C) Recycle
(D) Reduce
Answer:
(C) Recycle

Explanation:

We are using recycle method to save the environment.

Question 4.

Which of these you would practice in your daily life?

(A) Reuse
(B) Recycle
(C) Reduce
(D) Remove
Answer:
(A) Reuse

Explanation:
Reuse, because process of recycling uses some energy and takes some time.

Question 5.

Which of these statements is incorrect about sustainable development ?

(A) Economic development is linked to environmental conservation
(B) Sustainable development encourages development for current generation and conservation of resources for future generations
(C) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders
(D) Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent development
Answer:
(C) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders

Explanation:
Sustainable developments take into consideration both economic growth and ecological conservation simultaneously besides giving due considerations to the viewpoint any four stakeholders.

III. Study the given diagrams and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 2
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources 3
Question 1.

The water reservoir in fig (1) and (2) is………….. and…………… respectively.

(A) Pond, underground water body
(B) Underground water body, pond
(C) Underground water body in both
(D) Pond in both
Answer:
(A) Pond, underground water body

Explanation:
In fig (1), the water reservoir is a pond while in fig (2), it is underground water body.

Question 2.

Which has an advantage over the other?

(A) Fig (1) has more advantage than fig (2).
(B) Fig (2) has more advantage than fig (1)
(C) Both has equal advantage.
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Fig (2) has more advantage than fig (1)

Explanation:
Fig (2) has more advantage than fig (1). It is because, ground water does not evaporate. It provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area. It is also protected from contamination by animal and human wastes.

Question 3.

Which of these reservoirs contains the most water?

(A) Atmosphere
(B) Biosphere
(C) Groundwater
(D) Lakes and rivers.
Answer:
(C) Groundwater

Explanation:
Ground water is the water that seeps through rocks and soil and is stored below the ground.

Question 4.

Ground water will not be depleted due to:

(A) Afforestation
(B) thermal power plants
(C) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall
(D) cropping of high water demanding crops
Answer:
(A) Afforestation

Explanation:
Afforestation (plantation of trees) will save ground water from getting depleted.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 5.

Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient structures that are examples for

(A) grain storage.
(B) wood storage.
(C) water harvesting.
(D) soil conservation.
Answer:
(C) water harvesting.

Explanation:
Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient water conservation practices.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kj, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

(A) 5 kj
(B) 50 kj
(C) 500 kj
(D) 5,000 kj
Answer:
(D) 5,000 kj

Explanation:
According to 10% law, only 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level and remaining 90% energy is used in life processes by present trophic level.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 1
Therefore,
Energy available to Grass = 10% of 5000 kj. Energy available to Grasshopper = 10% of 500kj Energy available to Frog = 10% of 5000 kj = 50kj Energy available to Hawk= 10% of 50 kj = 5 kj

Question 2.

In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of:

(A) heat energy.
(B) light energy.
(C) chemical energy.
(D) mechanical energy.
Answer:
(C) chemical energy.

Explanation:
In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of chemical energy. The producers or green plants capture the energy in sunlight and convert it into chemical energy which is passed onwards to the other trophic level.

Question 3.

Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the

(A) food web.
(B) ecological pyramid.
(C) ecosystem.
(D) food chain.
Answer:
(A) food web.

Explanation:
Food web is a network of food chains. Each organism is generally eaten by two or more kinds of organisms which are again eaten bv several other organisms and so instead of straight line food chain, the series of organisms dependent on one another for their food can be shown by branched chain which is called as a food web.

Question 4.

Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?

(i) Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf
(ii) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(iii) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(iv) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
Food chain (ii): It is an aquatic food chain so grasshopper cannot be a part of it.
In food chain (iii): Wolf, snake and tiger, all are carnivores. There are no herbivores to eat grass therefore grass cannot be a part of food chain (iii).

Question 5.

The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about:

(A) 1%.
(B) 5%.
(C) 8%.
(D) 10%.
Answer:
(A) 1%.

Explanation:
Green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of the energy of sunlight that falls on the leaves and converts it into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 6.

Select the mismatched pair in the following and correct it.

(A) Bio-magnification—Accumulation of chemicals at the successive trophic levels of a food chain
(B) Ecosystem—Bio tic components of environment
(C) Aquarium — A man-made ecosystem
(D) Parasites — Organisms which obtain food from other living organisms
Answer:
(B) Ecosystem—Bio tic components of environment

Explanation:
Both biotic and abiotic components of environment constitute an ecosystem.

Question 7.

Which one of the followings is an artificial ecosystem?

(A) Pond
(B) Crop field
(C) Lake
(D) Forest ‘Ff
Answer:
(B) Crop field

Explanation:
Ecosystems which are made by man, are called artificial ecosystem. For example, in crop fields abiotic and biotic components are selected bv humAnswer: Sowing of seeds, irrigation and further progress in crop fields is also closely kept under observation to get good crop yield.

Question 8.

In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by

(A) carnivores.
(B) herbivores.
(C) decomposers.
(D) producers.
Answer:
(A) carnivores.

Explanation:
In food chain, (i) plants occupy the first trophic level, (ii) herbivores occupy the second trophic level, (iii) carnivores occupy the third trophic level.

Question 9.

Which one of the following green house gases is a contributor due to incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum?

(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(C) Carbon monoxide

Explanation:
Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum releases carbon monoxide, which is a contributor of greenhouse effect.

Question 10.

Depletion of ozone is mainly due to .

(A) chlorofluorocarbon compounds.
(B) carbon monoxide.
(C) methane.
(D) pesticides.
Answer:
(A) chlorofluorocarbon compounds.

Explanation:
Depletion of ozone layer occurs due to chlorofluorocarbons . Other chemicals do not cause depletion of ozone layer in the environment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 11.

Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results in

(i) damage to immune system.
(ii) damage to lungs.
(iii) skin cancer.
(iv) peptic ulcers.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Excessive exposure of humans to ultraviolet (UV)-rays results in :
(i) Skin cancer.
(ii) Damage to the immune system of the body.

Question 12.

Which of the followings are environment-friendly practices?

(A) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while shopping.
(B) Switching off unnecessary lights and fAnswer:
(C) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.

Explanation:
The eco-friendly habits that we should adopt in our day-to-day life are:
(i) Switch off the lights when not in use.
(ii) Walk to school or use bicycle.
(iii) Always carry cotton bags instead of using plastic bags.

Question 13.

Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is known as

(A) eutrophication.
(B) pollution.
(C) bio-magnification.
(D) accumulation.
Answer:
(C) bio-magnification.

Explanation:
The phenomenon of increasing accumulation of non-hiodegradable pesticides at each higher trophic level in a food chain is known as bio-magnification.

Question 14.

Disposable plastic plates should not be used because

(A) they are made of materials with light weight.
(B) they are made of toxic materials.
(C) they are made of biodegradable materials.
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials.
Answer:
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials.

Explanation:
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because they are made of non- biodegradable materials. Under certain conditions, the non-biodegradable substances can persist for longer time and can also harm the various components of ecosystem.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 15.

What happens to the earth’s temperature due to the greenhouse effect?

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Increases

Explanation:
When the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere increases, it creates a blanket around the earth, trapping heat that is reflected from the earth. The trapped heat causes the earth’s temperatures to rise leading to global warming.

Question 16.

Why is it difficult to degrade non-biodegradable wastes?

(A) Because non-biodegradable wastes cannot be recycled.
(B) Because microorganisms cannot decompose it.
(C) They can be made into organic wastes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Because microorganisms cannot decompose it.

Explanation:
It is difficult or rather impossible to degrade non-biodegradable wastes because microorganisms cannot decompose these.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Food chain is responsible for the entry of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
Reason (R): The length and complexity of food chains vary greatly.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Through biomagnification, harmful chemicals that are not metabolised by our body pass into the food chain, irrespective of the length and complexity of the food chain, which may vary in nature.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Greater number of individuals are present in lower trophic levels.
Reason (R): The flow of energy is unidirectional.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
There are generally a greater number of individuals at the lower trophic levels of an ecosystem; the greatest number is of the producers. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always linear or unidirectional. The energy captured from producers does not revert to the solar input. Also, the energy which passes to the herbivores does not come back to autotrophs.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Herbivores are called first order consumers.
Reason (R): Tiger is a top carnivore.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Herbivores obtain their food from plants. Hence, are known as first order carnivores. The carnivores like tiger that cannot be preyed upon further, lie at the top of food chain and hence termed as top carnivores.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
Reason (R): Energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and it passes to the herbivores.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The flow of energy through different steps in the food chain is unidirectional. This means that energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and it passes to the herbivores.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): First trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant.
Reason (R): Green plants are called producers.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Green plants are producers. The first trophic level in a food chain is the producers i.e. those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Decomposers keep the environment clean.
Reason (R): They recycle matter by breaking down the organic remains and waste products of plants and animals.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Decomposers keep the environment clean by decomposing or consuming the dead remains of other organisms.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The concentration of harmful chemicals is more in human beings.
Reason (R): Man is at the apex of the food chain.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Harmful chemicals accumulate progressively at each trophic level. Since the man is at the apex of all the food chains, the concentration of harmful chemicals may be more in human beings. The phenomenon involved is known as biomagnification.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): CFCs deplete the ozone layer.
Reason (R): CFCs are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Ozone layer is getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere due to effect of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are
used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable substances.
Reason (R): They can be broken down by micro-organisms in natural simple harmless substances.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Substances like polythene bags and plastics are non-biodegradable because they cannot be broken down by micro-organisms into simpler harmless substance in nature. Substances that can be broken down by micro-organisms in natural simple harmless substances are biodegradable substances.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Ozone is both beneficial and damaging.
Reason (R): Stop the release of chlorofluorocarbons to protect the ozone.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Ozone is damaging as it is a deadly poison. It is beneficial as it shields the surface of the earth from UV radiations of the Sun. We should stop the release of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) to protect the ozone.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): Wastes such as plastics, paper, vegetable or fruit peels, which are generated in our house daily are biodegradable.
Reason (R): Biodegradable wastes can be broken down into simpler, harmless substance in nature in due course of time by the biological processes such as action of microorganisms.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Household wastes like paper, vegetable and fruit peels are biodegradable wastes that can be degraded by microorganisms while waste like plastics are non-biodegradable. They cannot be broken down into simpler, harmless substances in nature.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Read the following and answer any four the questions from Q.1 to Q.5.
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so must consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the sun’s light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from chemosythesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 2

Question 1.

If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?

(A) 10,000 J
(B) 100J
(C) 1000 J
(D) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.
Answer:
(B) 100J

Explanation:
As we know, only 1 % of energy of sunlight that falls on leaves is converted into food energy by plants. So, of 10,000 J is the energy of the sunlight, then (1/100) x 10,000 = 100 J of energy will be converted into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

If Ravi is consuming curd/yogurt for lunch, which trophic level in a food chain he should be considered as occupying ?

OR
Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be considered as occupying

(A) First trophic level
(B) Second trophic level
(C) Third trophic level
(D) Fourth trophic level
Answer:
(C) Third trophic level

Explanation:
Curd is made from milk which is obtained from cow. Cow is a primary consumer that feeds on producer (grass) and occupies second trophic level. Thus, consuming the produce obtained from an organism at second trophic level makes Ravi belong to third trophic level.

Question 3.

The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is because decomposers:

(A) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
(B) Do not breakdown organic compounds
(C) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
(D) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms
Answer:
(A) Act at every trophic level of the food chain

Explanation:

Decomposers act at every trophic level of the food chain. So, they do not belong to any particular trophic level.

Question 4.

Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of

(A) Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
(B) Energy is repeatedly circulation and matter is unidirectional.
(C) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
(D) Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.
Answer:
(C) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.

Explanation:
The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always linear or unidirectional. The energy captured from producers does not revert to the solar input. Also, the energy which passes to the herbivores does not come back to autotrophs. Also, the matter is repeatedly circulating in ecosystem.

Question 5.

Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

(A) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(B) Less availability of food
(C) Polluted air
(D) Water
Answer:
(A) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels

Explanation:
At every step in a food chain the energy received by the organism is also used for its own metabolism and maintenance. The left over is passed to next higher trophic level. Thus energy flow decreases with successive trophic levels. This means, the number of trophic levels in a food chain is restricted by 10 % flow of energy, less amount of energy available to the last trophic level.

II. Carefully study the given food web and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 3

Question 1.

The mussel can be described as

(A) Producer
(B) Primary consumer
(C) Secondary consumer
(D) decomposer
Answer:
(C) Secondary consumer

Explanation:
In the give food web, the algae is the primary producer, microscopic animals consume algae and are the primary consumers and mussels are at the next trophic level and are the secondary consumers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?

(A) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers
(B) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
(C) Herbivores – primary consumers
(D) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
Answer:
(D) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms

Explanation:
Omnivores consume both plant and animal matter. Molds, yeast and mushrooms are saprophytes that feed on dead and decaying matter.

Question 3.

The given figure best represents:

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 4
(A) Grassland food chain
(B) Parasitic food chain
(C) Forest food chain
(D) Aquatic food chain
Answer:
(A) Grassland food chain

Explanation:
Since, the given food chain comprises grass, grasshopper, frog and snake, so they belong to grassland food chain.

Question 4.

Why do all food chains start with plants?

(A) Because plants are easily grown
(B) Because plants are nutritious
(C) Because plants can produce its own energy
(D) Because plants do not require energy
Answer:
(C) Because plants can produce its own energy

Explanation: The first trophic level in a food chain is producer i.e. those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis.

Question 5.

In the food web, which two organisms are competing for food?

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 5
(A) A and B
(C) A and C
(B) D and F
(D) B and D
Answer:
(D) B and D

Explanation:
B and D are present at the same trophic level. This means they consume the same organisms and thus compete for the food,

III. Read the following and answer the questions any four from Q.1. to Q.5.
Biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living organisms and abiotic factors from which they derive energy and nutrients. And ecosystem is defined as structural and functional unit of the biosphere comprising of living and non-living environment that interact by means of food chains and chemical cycles resulting in energy flow, biotic diversity and material cycling to form a stable, selfsupporting system.

Biotic vs. Abiotic Factors

LivingNon-Living
ExamplesExamples
PlantsWater
AnimalsSunlight
FungiSoil
BacteriaAir
Temperature

Question 1.

Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?

(A) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers
(B) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
(C) Herbivores – primary consumers
(D) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
Answer:
(C) Herbivores – primary consumers

Explanation:
Omnivores consume both plant and animal matter. Molds, yeast and mushrooms are saprophytes that feed on dead and decaying matter.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

The diagram below shows a food web from the sea shore

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 6
The mussel can be described as
(A) Producer
(B) Primary consumer
(C) Secondary consumer
(D) Decomposer
Answer:
(A) Producer

Explanation:
In the give food web, the algae is the primary producer, microscopic animals consume algae and are the primary consumers and mussels are at the next trophic level and are the secondary consumers.

Question 3.

The given figure best represents:

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 7
(A) Grassland food chain
(B) Parasitic food chain
(C) Forest food chain
(D) Aquatic food chain
Answer:
(C) Forest food chain

Explanation:
Since, the given food chain comprises grass, grasshopper, frog and snake, so they belong to grassland food chain.

Question 4.

Consider the following statements concerning food chains:

I. Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
II. Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of herbivores.
III. The length of the food chains is generally limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels due to energy loss
IV. The length of the food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels
Which two of the above statements are correct?

(A) (I), (IV)
(B) (I), (II)
(C) (II), (III)
(D) (III), (IV)
Answer:
(C) (II), (III)

Explanation:
Removal of tigers from an area will lead to an increase in number of herbivores and hence there will be decreased growth of vegetation in that particular area. The number of trophic levels in a food chain does not reach 8 rather there are 3 or 4 trophic levels.

Question 5.

Which of the following group of organisms are not included in ecological food chain?

(A) Carnivores
(B) Saprophytes
(C) Herbivores
(D) Predators
Answer:
(B) Saprophytes

Explanation:
Saprophytes feed on dead and decaying matter. So they act on every trophic level of the food chain. Thus they do not belong to any particular trophic level and are not part of any ecological pyramid though they play an important role in the ecosystem.

IV. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Waste management is essential in today’s society. Due to an increase in population, the generation of waste is getting doubled day by day. Moreover, the increase in waste is affecting the lives of many people. Waste management is the managing of waste by disposal and recycling of it. Moreover, waste management needs proper techniques keeping in mind the environmental situations. For instance, there are various methods and techniques by which the waste is disposed of. You must have come across 5 R’s to save the environment: refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose and recycle.

Question 1.

Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.

(A) RefuseChoose products that use less packaging
(B) ReduceGive unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools
(C) ReuseNot using single use plastic
(D) RepurposeMaking flower pot from used plastic bottle

Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Reusing a waste material to make something that is useful is called repurposing. Using a plastic bottle to make a flower pot is thus repurposing.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food packaging because

(A) recycled papers take lots of space
(B) recycled papers can’t cover food properly
(C) recycled papers can cause infection
(D) recycled papers are costly
Answer:
(C) recycled papers can cause infection

Explanation:
It is because decomposition of paper produces chemicals like methane which may cause infection.

Question 3.

According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct information.

Wet wasteDry wasteHazardous waste
(A) Cooked food, vegetable peelsUsed bulbs, fluorescent lampsPlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard
(B) Coffee and tea powder, garden wastePlastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboardExpired medicines, razors, paint cans
(C) Leftover food, vegetable peelsCoffee and tea powder, garden wasteInsect  repellents,cleaning

solutions

(D) Uncooked food, tea leavesOld crockery, frying pansCoffee and tea powder, garden waste

Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Coffee and tea powder, garden waste are recyclable wet waste, plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard are kitchen dry waste while expired medicines, razors, paint cans are domestic hazardous wastes.

Question 4.

Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.

(i) less waste goes to the landfills
(ii) better for public health and the environment
(iii) help in reducing the waste
(iv) resulting in deterioration of a waste picker’s health

(A) both (i) and (ii)
(B) both (i) and (iii)
(C) both (ii) and (iii)
(D) both (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(A) both (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
Waste segregation is included in law because it is much easier to recycle. Effective segregation of wastes means that less waste goes to landfill which makes it cheaper and better for people and the environment. It is also important to segregate for public health.

Question 5.

The given graph shows the amount of waste generated, dumped and treated in percentage. Identify the reason of low success rate of waste management process.

MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 8
(A) only 15% of urban India’s waste is processed
(B) less than 60% of waste is collected from households
(C) more than 60% of waste is collected from households
(D) both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
The reason for the low success rate of waste management process is that only 15 % of urban India’s waste is processed and less than 60 % of waste is collected from households.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

V. Read the following passage and answer the questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is the main component. Food as well as potable water is essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture; Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields.

These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and body.

Question 1.

The maximum concentration of pesticides are found in

(A) Man
(B) Plants
(C) Deer
(D) Tiger
Answer:
(A) Man

Explanation:
It is because humans are at the top of the food chain and due to biomagnification, the concentration of pesticides increases as one goes up the trophic levels.

Question 2.

Which of these methods could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent ?

(A) Organic farming
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Single cell protein
(D) Biofortification
Answer:
(A) Organic farming

Explanation:
Organic farming should be done or more bio-pesticides should be used.

Question 3.

Various steps in a food chain represent:

(A) Food web
(B) Trophic level
(C) Ecosystem
(D) Biomagnification
Answer:
(B) Trophic level

Explanation:
Trophic levels in a food chain represent various steps where transfer of food energy takes place.

Question 4.

With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a:

(A) Consumer
(B) Producer
(C) Producer and consumer
(D) Producer and decomposer
Answer:
(A) Consumer

Explanation:
With regards to various food chains operating an ecosystem,man is a consumer. They consumes the products of producers and eat other organisms.

Question 5.

First link in any food chain is usually green plants. Which of the following statements gives the correct explanation about the above statement?

(A) Only green plants have the capacity to synthesize food using sunlight.
(B) There are more herbivores than carnivores in a food chain.
(C) Green plants are the only ones fixed at one place in the soil and do not show any kind of movements.
(D) Green plants are widely distributed.
Answer:
(A) Only green plants have the capacity to synthesize food using sunlight.

Explanation:
The first link in any food chain is green plants because only they have the capacity to trap sunlight and synthesize food.

VI. Study the following food web and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 9

Question 1.

Which of these is the producer?

(A) K
(B) G
(C) J
(D) F
Answer:
(D) F

Explanation: F is the producer.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Which organisms are primary consumers?

(A) F, L, H, K
(B) M,G,J,H
(B) J, L, K, M
(D) F, K, M, H
Answer:
(B) M,G,J,H

Explanation:
M, G,J, H are primary consumers.

Question 3.

Which organisms will receive maximum energy in the ecosystem?

(A) M
(B) K
(C) F
(D) G
Answer:
(C) F

Explanation:
F will receive the maximum energy in the ecosystem.

Question 4.

Which organisms represent top level carnivores?

(A) K
(B) M
(C) G
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(A) K

Explanation:
K is top level carnivores.

Question 5.

What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level ?

(A) Population of organisms in previous trophic level will increase.
(B) Population of organism in previous trophic level will decrease.
(C) Population of organism in next trophic level will increase.
(D) This will not affect the population of any trophic level.
Answer:
(C) Population of organism in next trophic level will increase.

Explanation:
If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the population of organisms in next trophic level will increase.

VII. Read the following passage given below and answer the any of the four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
A water body characterized by nutrient rich water supports abundant growth of phytoplanktons and other water plants on its surface. Over time, the water body gets filled with a large number of such plants and the process is called Eutrophication. In such water bodies, dissolved oxygen content is nil or very less.

Question 1.

Eutrophicated water usually looks turbid green in colour because of

(A) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(B) Accumulation of minerals and nutrients
(C) ater body becoming polluted
(D) Release of degraded plant chlorophyll in water
Answer:
(A) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons

Explanation:
Eutrophicated water usually looks turbid green in colour because of excessive growth of phytoplanktons.

Question 2.

In eutrophicated water body, growth rate of phvtoplankton is high because of:

(A) Light penetrating the lower surfaces of water body
(B) Enrichment of nutrients in the water body
(C) Less of dissolved oxygen in the water body.
(D) Aquatic fauna flourishes well in eutrophicated water body.
Answer:
(B) Enrichment of nutrients in the water body

Explanation:
In eutrophicated water body, growth rate of phytoplankton is high because of enrichment of nutrients in the water body.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 3.

There is an extremely low level of dissolved oxygen in a eutrophicated water body because:

(A) Excessive growth of bacterial decomposers feeding on dead material which consume the dissolved oxygen
(B) Plants grow to such a great extent that they do not allow free flow of water hence oxygen in the atmosphere does not get mixed with water.
(C) The dissolved oxygen in water reacts with minerals and nutrients to form compounds and hence greatly reduces the quantity of oxygen.
(D) Oxygen released is consumed by fishes in the eutrophicated water and hence the quantity of dissolved oxygen is very low.

Question 4.

A portion of a river is covered with a green layer of tiny floating organisms L on its surface and the pond water also contains organisms like tadpole, small fish, Alligator. Which of the following is the correct food chain for the above organisms?

(A) Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator
(B) Tadpole→Small fish → Algae → Alligator
(C) Algae → Tadpole → Alligator → Small fish
(D) Algae → Alligator → Small fish v Tadpole
Answer:
(A) Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator

Explanation:
The correct food chain is : Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator
Answer:
(A) Algae → Tadpole → Small fish → Alligator

Explanation:
There is an extremely low level of dissolved oxygen in a eutrophicated water body because excessive growth of bacterial decomposers feeding on dead material which consume the dissolved oxygen.

Question 5.

Which of the following steps are used to treat industrial wastes and reduce pollution?

(i) Recycle the wastes
(ii) Discharge the wastes into the sea
(iii) Treat and neutralise harmful chemicals in the wastes

(A) Only (i) and (iii)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii)
(D) All the these
Answer:
(A) Only (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Discharging industrial wastes into the sea can cause water pollution.

VIII. Based on the information given and your knowledge, answer any of the four questions from Q.1. to Question 5.

Food chains and the energy flow within an ecosystem provide an important understanding of contingencies and mutual dependencies of organisms. The given below flow chart depicts the energy flow within some members of a grassland ecosystem. The grass in the below ecosystem transducer 120,000Jof sunlightandfixesitinto 12,000 J of energy. It is established that 90% of the energy of one trophic level is not passed to the next trophic level. Further assume that the energy transferred from one trophic level to the next is equally shared
MCQ Questions for Chapter 15 Our Environment 10

Question 1.

How many food chains are present in the food web depicted above?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer:
(C) 5

Explanation:
There are five food chains depicted in the above flow chart.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 2.

Based on the above information, indicate the amount of energy that an organism C may have received from an organism from the previous trophic level.

(A) 1,20,000 J
(B) 12,000 J
(C) 1200 J
(D) 120 J
Answer:
(C) 1200 J

Explanation:
This is based on ten percent law. According to ten percent law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.A = 1200 J, B = 1200 J, C = 1200 J, D = 120 J, E = 12 or 120 J, F = 120 J

Question 3.

In the food web depicted above, identify the most energy efficient link for tertiary consumer.

(A) Rabbit
(B) Rat
(C) Lizard
(D) Grasshopper
Answer:
(A) Rabbit

Explanation:
Tertiary consumer here is Eagle, so for eagle the most energy efficient link is rabbit, as the rabbit is not being eaten in any other food chain.

Question 4.

Which organism acts as both the secondary consumer and the tertiary consumer?

(A) Snake
(B) Hawk
(C) Chicken
(D) Rat
Answer:
(B) Hawk

Explanation:
In the given food web hawk acts as both the secondary consumer and the teritiary consumer.

Question 5.

Tropic levels are formed by which of the following components?

(A) Only plants
(B) Only animals
(C) Only carnivores
(D) Organisms linked in food chain
Answer:
(D) Organisms linked in food chain

Explanation:
Trophic levels are formed by organisms linked in food chains. They include various plants and animals in the different feeding (trophic) levels.

IX. Read the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Q.1. to Q.5. given below:
A farmer is growing a crop regularly in his field. He uses chemical fertilizers, pesticides, organic manure as well as bio-fertilizers. Very close to his field is a factory which emits smoke as a byproduct. There is also a huge lake in the nearby area.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 1.

A considerable increase in plant life in the lake was noticed after the farming activity intensified. The most likely reason for this could be:

(A) Chemical fertilizers leached into the lake from the field.
(B) Pesticides leached into the lake from the field.
(C) Organic manure leached into the lake from the field.
(D) Smoke particles from the industry got settled in moist surroundings of the lake.
Answer:
(A) Chemical fertilizers leached into the lake from the field.

Explanation:
A considerable increase in plant life in the lake was noticed after the farming activity intensified. The most likely reason for this could be chemical fertilizers leached into the lake from the field.

Question 2.

Consider the following food chain in the same lake. Aquatic plant(A) Small fish → Big fish → Birds Which of the above organisms is likely to show minimum amount of pesticide concentration in them after considerable time?

(A) Aquatic plants.
(B) Small fish.
(C) Big fish.
(D) Birds.
Answer:
(A) Aquatic plants.
Explanation:
Aquatic plants beings at the first trophic level will show minimum amount of pesticide concentration in them after considerable time.

Question 3.

……………is the increase in the concentration of harmful chemical substances in the body of living organisms.

(A) Biological oxygen demand
(B) Biomagnification
(C) Biosynthesis
(D) Biogeochemical cycle
Answer:
(B) Biomagnification

Explanation:
Increase in the concentration of harmful chemical substances in the body of living organisms is known as biomagnification. Biological magnification increases at each trophic level.

Question 4.

An expert agriculturist suggests to the farmer to minimize the use of chemical fertilizers and instead use biofertilizers as they have many advantages over chemical fertilizers. Which ofthe folio wingisNOT true for biofertilizers?

(A) They are economical
(B) They help in reducing pollution in the lake
(C) They are renewable
(D) They require large set-up for their production.
Answer:
(D) They require large set-up for their production.

Explanation:
Biofertilisers do not require large set-up for their production.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 5.

Which of these is a way to prevent accumulation of harmful chemicals in our bodies?

(A) Minimize the use of pesticides in agriculture
(B) Minimize the use of CFCs.
(C) Plant more and more trees.
(D) All of these
Answer:
(A) Minimize the use of pesticides in agriculture

Explanation:
Minimize the use of chemicals pesticides in agriculture is a way to prevent biomagnification.

X. Study the passage and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
The activities of man had adverse effects on all forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and non-living components of the biosphere. The unfavourable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of him but also of the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is an active member of ‘Eco club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing environmental degradation of the surroundings.

Question 1.

Which of the following does NOT exist in a balanced ecosystem?

(A) Interconnected food chains
(B) Interdependence among living organisms and the environment
(C) Animals dependent on plants but plants are not dependent on animals
(D) Communities made up of different populations of organisms
Answer:
(C) Animals dependent on plants but plants are not dependent on animals

Explanation:
The components of an ecosystem depend on each other to maintain the ecological balance. Plants not only depend on animals for their supply of carbon dioxide but also for other processes like pollination and dispersal of seed.

Question 2.

The green dustbin signifies:

(A) Non- biodegradable waste
(B) Biodegradable waste
(C) Plastic waste
(D) Garbage
Answer:
(B) Biodegradable waste

Explanation:
Green dustbins are for biodegradable wastes while blue dustbins are for non-biodegradable wastes.

Question 3.

Degradation of non-biodegradable waste is difficult because:

(A) Non-biodegradable wastes cannot be recycled.
(B) Microorganisms cannot decompose it.
(C) They can be made into organic wastes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Microorganisms cannot decompose it.

Explanation:
It is difficult or rather impossible to degrade non-biodegradable wastes because microorganisms cannot decompose them.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 4.

Which of these group(s) contains only non- biodegradable items?

(i) Wood, paper, leather
(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass
(iv) Plastic, bakelite, DDT

(A) (iii)
(B) (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Substances which are not broken down by the bacteria or saprophytes are called non-biodegradable substances. Under certain conditions, the non-biodegradable substances can persist for longer time and can also harm the various components of our ecosystem.

Question 5.

We should minimize the use of disposable plastic bags as

(A) they are made of materials with light weight
(B) they are made of toxic materials
(C) they are made of biodegradable materials
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
Answer:
(D) they are made of non-biodegradable materials

Explanation:
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because they are made of non- biodegradable materials

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of field :

(A) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnetic compass needle points.
(B) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(C) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength.
(D) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines. JJ
Answer:
(C) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength.

Explanation:
Magnetic field lines appear parallel when they are far from the magnet. But this does not mean that field strength is zero. No field line would be present where field strength becomes zero.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 2.

Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight current carrying wire?

(A) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(B) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(C) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(D) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Answer:
(D) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

Explanation:
The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire. On applying right-hand thumb rule, we find the direction of magnetic field. The field is in the form of concentric circles centered on the wire carrying current.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 3.

A constant current flowing in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from East to West is shown in Figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be from North to South :

MCQ Questions for Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 1
(A) directly above the wire.
(B) directly below the wire.
(C) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the north side of the wire.
(D) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the wire.
Answer:
(B) directly below the wire.

Explanation:
Line WE shows a straight conductor through which current is moving from E to W. When seen from east, the magnetic field lines appear in clockwise direction, i.e. S to N above the wire and N to S below the wire. This is in accordance with right hand thumb rule.

Question 4.

If the key in the arrangement in the given Figure, is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are:

MCQ Questions for Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 2
(A) concentric circles.
(B) lliptical in shape.
(C) straight lines parallel to each other.
(D) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it.
Answer:
(C) straight lines parallel to each other.

Explanation:
When the key is taken out, the circuit is open, no current flows and no magnetic field due to current carrying conductor. There exists only earth’s magnetic field which will exhibit straight lines parallel to each other.

Question 5.

For a current in a long straight solenoid N- and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is :

(A) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid.
(B) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the coil.
(C) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(D) The N and S-poles exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid is reversed.
Answer:
(C) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
Explanation: A solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. Hence, the pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is same as the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 6.

The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is :

(A) more at the ends than at the centre
(B) minimum in the middle
(C) same at all points
(D) found to increase from one end to the other
Answer:
(C) same at all points

Explanation:
Magnetic field lines are straight and parallel inside the solenoid. This indicates a same magnetic field. Hence, inside the solenoid, the magnetic field is same throughout.

Question 7.

Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field? (There may be more than one correct answer.)

(A) Mass
(B) Speed
(C) Velocity
(D) Momentum
Answer:
(C) Velocity (D) Momentum

Explanation:
When a proton enters a magnetic field, it starts moving on a circular path. Because of its movement along a circular path it attains angular momentum. We know that momentum is a product of mass and velocity. Therefore velocity and mass of a proton change when it enters a magnetic field.

Question 8.

A positively-charged particle (alpha – particle pro-jected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is

(A) towards south.
(B) towards east.
(C) downward.
(D) upward.
Answer:
(D) upward.

Explanation:
In accordance with Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule, the direction of magnetic field is vertically upward.

Question 9.

The phenomenon of electro-magnetic induction is :

(A) the process of charging a body.
(B) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
(C) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
(D) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Answer:
(C) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
Explanation: In electro-magnetic induction phenomenon, an induced current begins to flow in a coil whenever there is a change in magnetic field in and around a coil.

Question 10.

The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that:

(A) AC generator has an electro-magnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
(B) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(C) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(D) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Answer:
(D) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.

Explanation:
AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 11.

Choose the correct option. A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current changes once in each:

(A) two revolutions.
(B) one revolution.
(C) half revolution.
(D) one-fourth revolution.
Answer:
(C) half revolution.

Explanation:
When a rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field, the direction of the induced current changes once in each half revolution.

Question 12.

Choose the incorrect statement:

(A) Fleming’s right-hand rule is a simple rule to know the direction of induced current.
(B) The right-hand thumb rule is used to find the direction of magnetic fields due to current-carrying conductors.
(C) The difference between the direct and alternating currents is that the direct current always flows in one direction, whereas the alternating current reverses its direction periodically.
(D) In India, the AC changes direction after every 1/50 second.
Answer:
(D) In India, the AC changes direction after every 1/50 second.

Explanation:
In India, the AC changes direction after every 1/100 second.

Question 13.

At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit:

(A) reduces substantially
(B) does not change
(C) increases heavily
(D) vary continuously
Answer:
(C) increases heavily

Explanation:
At the time of short circuiting the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct contact. As a result, the current in the circuit increases abruptly.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 14.

The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is :

(A) Earthing
(B) use of fuse
(C) use of stabilisers
(D) use of electric meter A
Answer:
(B) use of fuse

Explanation:
A fuse is a short length of wire designed to melt in the event of excessive current flow.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs 

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Two bar magnets attract when they are brought near to each other with the same pole.
Reason (R): Unlike poles will attract each other.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Two bar magnets repel when same poles face each other. Opposite poles attract each other

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Magnetic field lines never intersect.
Reason (R): At a particular point magnetic field has only one direction.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Magnetic field lines never intersect each other as for two lines to intersect, there must be two north directions at a point, which is not possible.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): In Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, the direction of magnetic field, force and current are mutually perpendicular.
Reason (R): Fleming’s Left hand Rule is applied to measure the induced current.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
It is used to find the direction of force in a current carrying conductor in the presence of magnetic field.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): An alpha particle placed in a magnetic field will not experience any force, if it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
Reason (R): The force is zero if current and field are in the same direction.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
An alpha particle placed in a magnetic field will not experience any force, if it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines. It is because, the force is zero if current and field is in the same direction.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Safety fuses are made up of materials having a low melting point.
Reason (R): Safety fuses should be resistant to electric current.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Safety fuses are made up of materials having a low melting point so that when excess current flow through the circuit,
the fuse melts breaking the circuit and thus prevents appliances.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Copper is used to make electric wires.
Reason (R): Copper has very low electrical resistance.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The low electrical resistance of copper makes it a good conductor for electricity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 7.

Assertion (A): When two bulbs are operated on same voltage supply, having power 60 W and 100 W then 100 W bulb has less resistance than 60 W. Reason (R): The power of the bulb is directly proportional to the square of the voltage.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Since, power (P) Hence, 100 W bulb has less resistance.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is run in order to create a magnetic field. The magnetic field of the solenoid is the superposition of the fields due to the current through each coil. It is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet having a north pole at one end and a south pole at the other depending upon the direction of current flow.
The magnetic field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few factors such as, the current in the coil, number of turns per unit length etc. The following graph is obtained by a researcher while doing an experiment to see the variation of the magnetic field with respect to the current in the solenoid.
The unit of magnetic field as given in the graph attached is in mili-Tesla (mT) and the current is given in Ampere.

MCQ Questions for Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 3
Question 1.

What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear solenoid?

(A) Mechanical to Magnetic
(B) Electrical to Magnetic
(C) Electrical to Mechanical
(D) Magnetic to Mechanical
Answer:
(B) Electrical to Magnetic

Explanation:
In a solenoid, the current flowing through the circuit generates its own magnetic field. Hence the electrical energy of the circuit is converted to magnetic field.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 2.

What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?

(A) The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short- circuit.
(B) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(C) The bar will be magnetised permanently.
(D) The bar will not be affected by any meAnswer:
Answer:
(B) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.

Explanation:
The magnetic field produced by the solenoid will be reinforced by the iron bar and it will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.

Question 3.

The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are similar to that of… A

(A) a bar magnet
(B) a straight current carrying conductor
(C) a circular current carrying loop
(D) electromagnet of any shape
Answer:
(A) a bar magnet

Explanation:
Solenoids mimic bar magnets. The magnetic field of a solenoid are similar to that of a bar magnet and just like a bar magnet a solenoid also has north and south poles.

Question 4.

After analysing the graph a student writes the following statements.

(A) The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is inversely proportional to the current.
(B) The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to the current.
(C) The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to square of the current.
(D) The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is independent of the current. Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statement(s).

(A) Only IV
(B) I and III and IV
(C) I and II
(D) Only II
Answer:
(D) Only II

Explanation:
As can be seen from the graph the magnetic field is increasing linearly with current. Therefore, the current is directly proportional to the magnetic field.

Question 5.

From the graph deduce which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT
(B) For larger currents, the magnetic field increases non-linearly.
(C) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT
(D) There is not enough information to find the magnetic field corresponding to 0.8A current.
Answer:
(A) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT

Explanation:
From the above graph we can see that 0.8 A corresponds to 13 mT magnetic field.

II. Study the given diagram and answer any of the four questions form Question 1. to Question 5.
In the given diagram, two coils of insulated copper wire are wound over a nonconducting cylinder as shown. Coil P has larger number of turns.
MCQ Questions for Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 4

Question 1.

A momentary deflection is shown by the galvanometer, when:

(A) Key K is open
(B) Key K is closed
(C) In both the situations
(D) In neither of the case.
Answer:
(C) In both the situations

Explanation:
Momentary deflection is seen in both the cases. When the key K is open, deflection is shown by the galvanometer and when it is closed, a momentary deflection is seen in opposite direction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 2.

Which phenomenon is involved in it ?

(A) Electromagnetic induction
(B) Magnetism
(C) Electromagnetism
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Electromagnetic induction

Explanation:
Electromagnetic induction is the process by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces current in another conductor.

Question 3.

In above phenomenon, the current is induced in another conductor,

(A) By changing magnetic field
(B) By increasing the strength of current
(C) By decreasing the strength of the current
(D) By using extra wire.
Answer:
(A) By changing magnetic field

Explanation:
Electromagnetic current is induced in another conductor by changing the magnetic field.

Question 4.

The rule which helps us to know direction of induced current:

(A) Flemings right hand rule
(B) Flemings left hand rule
(C) Electro magnetic induction
(D) Faraday’s Law
Answer:
(A) Flemings right hand rule

Explanation:
Flemings right hand rule helps us to know the direction of induced current.

Question 5.

Flemings right hand rule explains:

(A) Direction of magnetic field
(B) Direction of motion of conductor
(C) Only (a)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(D) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation:
In Fleming’s Right Hand Rule the first three fingers of the right hand are mutually perpendicular to each other such that the forefinger gives the direction of magnetic field and the thumb points in the direction of the motion of a conductor then, the middle finger will give the direction of the induced current.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

III. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board. He places a bar magnet in the centre of it. He sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. Then he taps the board gently and observes that the iron filings arrange themselves in a particular pattern.

Question 1.

Why do the iron fillings arrange themselves in a particular pattern ?

(A) Due to external force applied on the magnet.
(B) Due to force exerted by the magnet outside the magnetic field.
(C) Due to the force exerted by magnet within its magnetic field.
(D) Due to pressure of magnetic field.
Answer:
(C) Due to the force exerted by magnet within its magnetic field.

Explanation:
It is due to the force exerted by the magnet within its magnetic field.

Question 2.

What do the lines along which the iron fillings align represent ?

(A) North pole and south pole of the magnet
(B) Strength of the magnet
(C) Magnetic field lines
(D) Gravitational force.
Answer:
(C) Magnetic field lines

Explanation:
The lines represent magnetic field lines.

Question 3.

What does the crowding of iron filings at the end of the magnet indicate?

(A) Magnetic field is strongest near the poles of the magnet.
(B) Magnetic field is weakest near the poles of the magnet.
(C) There is no significant magnetic field at the poles of the magnet.
(D) The significance of polarity
Answer:
(A) Magnetic field is strongest near the poles of the magnet.

Explanation:
Crowding of iron filings at the ends of the magnet indicates that the magnetic field is strongest near the poles of the magnet.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 4.

The closer field lines indicate:

(A) Magnetic field in that region is weak
(B) Magnetic field in that region is strong.
(C) Magnetic field in that region is zero.
(D) North and South poles are closer.
Answer:
(B) Magnetic field in that region is strong.

Explanation:
The strength of magnetic field is indicated by the closeness of the field lines. Closer the lines, more will be the strength and farther the lines, lesser will be the field strength.

Question 5.

What is SI unit of magnetic field:

(A) Pascal
(B) Nm2
(C) Tesla
(D) No unit
Answer:
(C) Tesla

Explanation:
Tesla is the SI unit of magnetic field.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

A cylindrical conductor of length T and uniform area of cross section A’ has resistance ‘R’. The area of cross section of another conductor of same material and same resistance but of length ’21’ is

(A) \(\frac{A}{2}\)
(B) \(\frac{3 A}{2}\)
(C) 2A
(D) 3A
Answer:
(C) 2A

Explanation:
Resistivity of the conductor in the first case, p = \(\frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}\)
Resistivity of the conductor in second case, p = \(\rho=\frac{\mathrm{RA}^{\prime}}{2 l}\)
Since, both conductors are of same material and are at same temperature, so the resistivity of both the conductors will be same.
Therefore, from equations, (i) and (ii), we have :
\(\Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}=\frac{\mathrm{RA}^{\prime}}{2 l}\)
=>A’ = 2A

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 2.

The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistor each of resistance \(\frac{1}{2} Ω\) is

(A) 2 Ω
(B) IΩ
(C) 2.5 Ω
(D) 8 Ω
Answer:
(A) 2 Ω

Explanation:
Maximum resistance in series = 41 x l/2 = 2 Ohm.

Question 3.

When a 4V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. The value of the resistance of the resistor is:

(A) 4 Ω
(B) 40 Ω
(C) 400 Ω
(D) 0.4 Ω
Answer:
(B) 40 Ω

Explanation:
V=IR, V = 4 V, I = 100 mA = 0.1 A
Hence, R=\(=\frac{V}{l}\)=\(\frac{4}{0.1}\) = 40Ω

Question 4.

Unit of electric power may also be expressed as:

(A) Volt-ampere
(B) Kilowatt-hour
(C) Watt-second
(D) Joule-second JR[
Answer:
(A) Volt-ampere

Explanation:
Unit of electric power is volt- ampere.

Question 5.

A cell, a resistor, a key, and ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams given below. The current recorded in the ammeter will be:

(A) maximum in (i).
(B) maximum in (ii).
(C) maximum in (iii).
(D) the same in all the cases.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 1
Answer:
(D) the same in all the cases.

Explanation:
In series connections, the order of elements in the circuit will not affect the amount of current flowing in the circuit.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 6.

Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon

(A) its length.
(B) its thickness.
(C) its shape.
(D) nature of the material.
Answer:
(D) nature of the material.

Explanation:
The resistivity of a material is constant for a particular material at a constant temperature. It only depends on the temperature. Resistivity of material does not depend on length, thickness, and shape of the A material.

Question 7.

A current of A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through a cross section of the filament in 16 seconds would be where, e = 1.6 x 10-19 C

(A) 1020
(B) 1020
(C) 1018
(D) 1019
Answer:
(A) 1020

Explanation:
Given, 1=1 Amp.
t = 16 s
Asl = \(\frac{Q}{t}\) = \(\frac{n e}{t}\)
n = \(\frac{\left(1^{t} \times T\right)^{t}}{e}\) = \(\frac{n e}{t}\) \(\left(1^{t} \times \mathrm{T}\right)^{t}\) = \(\frac{1 \times 16}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\)

n = 1020

Question 8.

The resistivity does not change if :

(A) the material is changed.
(B) the temperature is changed.
(C) the shape of the resistor is changed.
(D) both material and temperature are changed.
Answer:
(C) the shape of the resistor is changed.

Explanation:
Resistivity always varies with change in temperature, nature of material. But resistivity cannot be change in any shape of conductor.

Question 9.

Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current through the 100 W bulb is 1 A. The current through the 40 W bulb will be:

(A) 0.4 A
(B) 0.6 A
(C) 0.8 A
(D) 1 A
Answer:
(D) 1 A

Explanation:
In a series connection, the current through each device remains the same. Therefore, the current through the 40 W bulb will also be 1 A.

Question 10.

What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of  \(\frac{1}{5}\)Ω ?

(A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)Ω
(B) 10Ω
(C) 5Ω
(D) 1 Ω
Answer:
(D) 1 Ω

Explanation:
The highest resistance is always given by connecting the resistors in series. Here, the highest resistance would be 5 x – =1 Ω. 5 Therefore, the maximum resistance is 1 ohm.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 11.

What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of  \(\frac{1}{5}\)Ω ?

(A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)Ω
(B) \(\frac{1}{25}\)Ω
(C) \(\frac{1}{10}\)Ω
(D) 25 Ω
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{1}{25}\)Ω

Explanation:
Minimum resistance is obtained when resistors are connected in parallel combination. Thus, equivalent resistance obtained by connecting five resistors of resistance \(\frac{1}{5} \Omega\) each, parallel to each other :
\(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{1_{5}}+\frac{1}{1_{5}}+\frac{1}{1_{5}}+\frac{1}{1_{5}}+\frac{1}{1 / 5} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{R}=\frac{5}{1 / 5}\)

=> \(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{25}{1}\)
=> R =(B) \(\frac{1}{25}\)Ω

Question 12.

Which of the following represents voltage?

(A) \(\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { Current } \times \text { Time }}\)
(B) Work done × Charge
(C) \(\frac{\text { Work done } \times \text { Time }}{\text { Current }}\)
(D) \(\frac{\text { Work done } \times \text { Charge }}{\text { Time }}\)

Explanation:
As we know that,
Work done = Charge x Potential difference =>Work done = (Current x Time) x Potential Difference [∴ Charge = Current x time]
=> Potential difference \(=\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { Current } \times \text { Time }}\)

Question 13.

If the current through a resistor is increased by 100% (assume that temperature remains unchanged), the increase in power dissipated will be

(A) 100%
(B) 200%
(C) 300%
(D) 400%
Answer:
(C) 300%

Explanation:
If is current and R is resistance then,
Power, P =I2R
Power in first case, P1 = I2R 100% increase in current means that current becomes 21
Power in second case, P2 = (2I)2R = 4I2R
Now, increase in dissipated power = P2 – P1
= 4I2R – I2R = 3I2R
Percentage increase in dissipated power = \(\frac{3 P_{1}}{P_{1}} \times 100\) = 300%

Question 14.

In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B, and C of rating 40 W, 60 W, and 100 W, respec¬tively are connected in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is likely to happen regard¬ing their brightness?

(A) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same.
(B) Brightness of bulb A will be the maximum.
(C) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A.
(D) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B.
Answer:
(C) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A.

Explanation:
We know that power is defined as rate of doing work. A bulb consumes electric energy and produces heat and light. Now, bulb with more power rating will produce more heat and light or we can say that power rating of bulb is directly proportional to the brightness produced by bulb. Therefore, brightness of bulb B with power rating 60 W will be more than the brightness of bulb A having power rating as 40 W.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 15.

An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of what rating must be used for it?

(A) 1 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 4 A
(D) 5 A
Answer:
(D) 5 A

Explanation:
Given that,
power = P = 1 kW = 1000 W
Voltage = V = 220
N0w,I = \(\frac{P}{V}\) = \(\frac{1000}{220}\) = 4.5A Now rating of fuse wire must be slightly greater than 4.5 A, that is, 5 A.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): A conductor has + 3.2 x 1019 C charge.
Reason (R): Conductor has gained 2 electrons.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Conductor has positive charge, so it has lost two electrons.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The resistivity of conductor increases with the increasing of temperature.
Reason (R): The resistivity is the reciprocal of the conductivity.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The resistivity of the conductors is directly proportional to temperature.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Bending a wire does not affect electrical resistance.
Reason (R): Resistance of wire is proportional to resistivity of material.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Resistance of wire R = p \(\left(\frac{l}{A}\right)\) Where p is resistivity of material which does not depend on the geometry of wire. Since when wire is bent its, resistivity, length and area of cross-section do not change, therefore resistance of wire also remains same.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Two resistance having value R each. Their equivalent resistance is\(\frac{R}{2}\).
Reason (R): Given Resistances are connected in parallel.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
When two resistances R1 and R2 connected in parallel than their equivalent resistance will be R = \(\frac{R_{1} R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}\)

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric iron and heater.
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low melting points then their constituent metals.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Alloys have high resistivity and high melting point as compared to pure metals. So alloys cannot easily bum or oxidize at higher temperature. Now as we want higher temperature in heating devices so we use alloys in heating devices.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is positive terminal of the battery.
Reason (R): The current flows towards the point of the lower potential as it flows in such a circuit from the positive to the negative terminal.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
In a simple battery circuit, the point of lowest potential is the negative terminal of the battery and the current flows from higher potential to lower potential.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Electric appliances with metallic body have three connections, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The metallic body of an electrical appliances is connected to the third pin which is connected to the earth. This is a safety precaution and avoids eventual electric shock. By doing this the extra charge flowing through the metallic body is passed to earth and avoid shocks. There is nothing such as reducing of the heating of connecting wires by three pin connections.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The electric bulbs glow immediately when switch is ON.
Reason (R): The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire is very high.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
In a conductor there are large numbers of free electrons. When we close the circuit, the electric field is established instantly with the speed of electromagnetic wave which causes electron drift at every portion of the circuit. Due to which the current is set up in the entire circuit instantly. The current which is set up does not wait for the electrons flow from one end of the conductor to another end. It is due to this, the bulb glows immediately when switch is ON.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Copper is used to make electric wires.
Reason (R): Copper has very low electrical resistance.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
A low electrical resistance of copper makes it a good electric conductor. So, it is used to make electric wires.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Silver is not used to make electric wires.
Reason (R): Silver is a bad conductor.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Silver is a good conductor of electricity but it is not used to make electric wires because it is expensive.

Case- Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Read the passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
Three resistors of 5 Si, 10 Q and 15 Q are connected in series and the combination is connected to the battery of 30 V. Ammeter and voltmeter are connected in the circuit.

Question 1.

Which of the following is the correct circuit diagram to connect all the devices in proper correct order.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 3
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 2
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 4

Expianation:
The correct circuit diagram is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 3
Question 2.

How much is the total resistance?

(A) 30Ω
(B) 20Ω
(C) \(\frac{11}{30} \Omega\)
(D) \(\frac{30}{11} \Omega\)
Answer:
(A) 30Ω

Explanation:
R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 30Ω

Question 3.

Two students perform experiments on two given resistors R1 and R2 and plot the following V-I graphs. If R1 > R2 which of the diagrams correctly

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 5
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 6
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 12

Explanation:
Diagram 1 is correct as R, is large so the slope of V-I graph (V/I) is greater in diagram and is correctly represented as R1.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 7

Question 4.

The device used to measure the current:

(A) Ammeter
(B) Galvanometer
(C) Voltmeter
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Ammeter

Explanation:
Ammeter is used to measure the current.

Question 5.

Which of the following is connected in series in circuit:

(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Ammeter

Explanation:
Ammeter is used to measure the current. It is connected in series in the circuit.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

III. Study the given table and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.

 

MaterialResistivity (Ω m)
ConductorsSilver1.60 x 10-8
Copper1.62 x 10-8
Aluminium2.63 x 10-8
Tungsten5.20 x 10-8
Nickel6.84 x 10-8
Iron10.0 x l0-8
Chromium12.9 x 10-8
Mercury94.0 x 10-8
Manganese1.84 x 10-6
AlloysConstantan49 x l0-6
[alloy of Cu and Ni]
Manganin

[alloy of Cu, Mn and Ni]

44 x 10-6
Nichrome

[alloy of Ni, Cr, Mn and Fe]

100 x 10-6

Question 1.

Which is a better conductor ?

(A) Chromium
(B) Nickel
(C) Mercury
(D) Iron
Answer:
(B) Nickel

Explanation:
Nickel is better conductor because its resistivity value is lower than others.

Question 2.

Element used to make heating element of electric geyser:

(A) Iron
(B) Silver
(C) Nichrome
(D) Tungsten
Answer:
(C) Nichrome

Explanation:
Nichrome is used to make the heating element of an electric geyser.

Question 3.

Element used to make filament of incandescent bulb:

(A) Copper
(B) Silver
(C) Nichrome
(D) Tungsten
Answer:
(D) Tungsten

Explanation:
Tungsten is used to make filament of incandescent bulb.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 4.

What happens to resistance of a conductor when its area of cross section is increased?

(A) Resistance increases
(B) Resistance decreases
(C) No change
(C) Resistance doubles
Answer:
(B) Resistance decreases

Explanation:
Electrical resistance is directly proportional to the length (L) of the conductor and inversely proportional to the cross sectional area (A).

Question 5.

A given length of a wire is doubled and this process is repeated once again. The resistance of wire becomes:

(A) 1/4th of original resistance
(B) 16 times of original resistance
(C) Double the original resistance
(D) Half of original resistance
Answer:
(B) 16 times of original resistance

Explanation:
Let resistance of the wire be R. When the wire is doubled and the process is repeated then the length of the wire reduced by 1/4 times.

So, resistance = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{4}\)
The total resistance of the wire when the resistance are arranged in parallel,
\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}=\frac{1}{\frac{R}{4}}+\frac{1}{\frac{R}{4}}+\frac{1}{\frac{R}{4}}+\frac{1}{\frac{R}{4}}+\frac{1}{\frac{R}{4}} \Rightarrow \frac{16}{R}\)
\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}=\frac{16}{R}\)
The resistance of the wire reduced by 16 times

IV. Observe the following table and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5. Electrical resistivities of some substances, at 20°C are given as follows:

Silver1.60 x 10-8Ω.m
Copper1.62 x 10-8 Ω.m
Tungsten5.2 x 10-8 Ω.m
Mercury94 x 10-8 Ω.m
Iron10 x 10-8 Ω.m
Nichrome10 x 10-6 Ω.m

Question 1.

Which is a better conductor of electric current ?

(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Tungsten
(D) Mercury
Answer:
(A) Silver

Explanation:
Silver is a better conductor because it has lower resistivity.

Question 2.

Which element will be used for electrical transmission lines ?

(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Tungsten
(D) mercury
Answer:
(B) Copper

Explanation:
Copper, because it is economical and has low resistivity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 3.

Nichrome is used in the heating elements of electric heating device because:

(A) It has high resistivity
(B) It does not oxidise readily at high temperature
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both of the above

Explanation:
Nichrome as it has very high resistivity as it is an alloy, it does not oxidize readily at high temperature.

Question 4.

Series arrangement is not used for domestic circuits because:

(A) Current drawn is less
(B) Current drawn is more
(C) Neither of the above
(D) Both of the above
Answer:
(A) Current drawn is less

Explanation:
In series arrangement, same current will flow through all the appliances which is not required and the equivalent resistance becomes higher, hence the current drawn becomes less.

Question 5.

If the resistance is to be increased, then the resistors are to be increased in:

(A) Series
(B) Parallel
(C) Mixed arrangement
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Series

Explanation:
The effective resistance in the series is the sum of individual resistances. So, the resistances should be connected in series in order to increase the effective resistance.

V. Based on the given diagram, answer any of the four questions form Question 1. to Question 5.
In the given circuit, connect a nichrome wire of length ‘L’ between points X and Y and note the ammeter reading.

Question 1.

When this experiment is repeated by inserting another nichrome wire of the same thickness but twice the length (2L), what changes are observed in the ammeter reading ?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 8
(A) Ammeter reading will increase
(B) Ammeter reading will decrease
(C) Will show double the increase
(D) No change in ammeter reading
Answer:
(A) Ammeter reading will increase

Explanation:
The ammeter reading will decrease (becomes half). This is because with the increase in length, resistance of the circuit increases, hence current decreases.

Question 2.

State the changes that are observed in the ammeter reading if we double the area of cross section without changing the length in the above experiment.

(A) Ammeter reading will increase
(B) Ammeter reading will decrease
(C) Will decrease to half
(D) No change in ammeter reading
Answer:
(B) Ammeter reading will decrease

Explanation:
The ammeter reading will increase (becomes two times). This is because as area increases, resistance decreases and hence current increases.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 3.

In a circuit two resistors of 5Ω and 10 Ω are connected in series. Compare the current passing through the two resistors.

(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 1
Answer:
(D) 1 : 1

Explanation:
In a series connection of resistors, same current passes through all the resistors. Hence, current will be same. Ratio of the currents will be 1:1.

Question 4.

The instrument used to measure current is ……..

(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Galvanometer
(D) manometer
Answer:
(A) Ammeter

Explanation:
Ammeter is used to measure current.

Question 5.

When nichrome and copper wire of same length and same radius are connected in series and current is passed through them. Which wire gets heated up more?

(A) Nichrome wire
(B) Copper wire
(C) Both will heat up at the same temperature
(D) None of the wire will get heated up.
Answer:
(A) Nichrome wire

Explanation:
In series combination current is same in nichrome and copper wires. Thus nichrome wire will produce more heat.

VI. Study the given circuit diagram and answer any of the four questions form Question 1. to Question 5. In this circuit, three identical bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are connected in parallel with a battery of 4.5 V.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 9

Question 1.

What will happen to the other two bulbs if the bulb B3 gets fused ?

(A) They will also stop glowing
(B) Other bulbs will glow with same brightness
(C) They will glow with low brightness
(D) They glow with more brightness
Answer:
(B) Other bulbs will glow with same brightness

Explanation:
Other bulbs will glow with same brightness

Question 2.

If the wattage of each bulb is 1.5 W, how much readings will the ammeter A show when all the three bulbs glow simultaneously.

(A) 1.0A
(B) 2A
(C) 1.5W
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) 1.0A

Explanation:
When the bulbs are in parallel, wattage will be added (4,5 W) and the ammeter reading would be,
I = p/v = \(\frac{4.5}{4.5}\) = 1A

Question 3.

Find the total resistance of the circuit:

(A) 1.00
(B) 4.50
(C) 1.50
(D) 2.00
Answer:
(B) 4.50

Explanation:
Ammeter reading =l.OA
V = 4.5V
R = V/I
= 4.5 = 4.5 Ω

Question 4.

How many resistors of 88 W are connected in parallel to carry 10 A current on a 220 V line ?

(A) 2 resistors
(B) 1 resistors
(C) 3 resistors
(D) 4 resistors
Answer:
(D) 4 resistors

Explanation:
Equivalent resistance,
= \(\frac{1}{R_{p}}\) = \(\frac{n}{88}\)
Rp = \(\frac{88}{n}\)
V = IR
R = \(\frac{88}{n}\)
\(\frac{88}{n}\) = \(\frac{220}{10}\)
n = 4 resistors

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 5.

Find the statement which does not justify parallel connection:

(A) The voltage of each component is same
(B) Overall resistance is lower than the resistance of single component
(C) Automobile headlight is connected in parallel
(D) There is a single path for the flow of electrons charge
Answer:
(D) There is a single path for the flow of electrons charge

Explanation:
There is path of flow of electron change through each resistor. So there are several path.

VII. Study the given passage and answer any of the four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
Two conductors A and B of resistances 5 O and 10 C2 respectively are first joined in parallel and then in series. In each case the voltage applied is 20 V.

Question 1.

Which of these circuit diagram shows the correct connection when A and B are joined in parallel?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 10

(D) none of these
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 13

Explanation:
The diagram (A) correctly shows the combination of these conductors in each case.

Question 2.

In which combination will the voltage across the conductors A and B be the same ?

(A) Series arrangement
(B) Parallel arrangement
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Parallel arrangement

Explanation:
Voltage across A and B will be same in parallel arrangement.

Question 3.

In which arrangement will the current through A and B be the same ?

(A) Series arrangement
(B) Parallel arrangement
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Series arrangement

Explanation:
Current in A and B will be same in series arrangement.

Question 4.

Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is:

(A) 15 Ω
(B) 3.33 Ω
(C) 0.3 Ω
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) 3.33 Ω

Explanation:
\(\frac{R_{1} R_{2}}{R_{1}+R_{2}}\) = \(\frac{5 \times 10}{5+10}\)
= 3.33 Ω

Question 5.

Equivalent resistance in series combination is:

(A) 15 Ω
(B) 3.33 Ω
(C) 0.3 Ω
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) 15 Ω

Explanation:
Series combination Rs = R1 + R2 = 5 + 10 = 15 Ω

VIII. Study the given circuit diagram and answer any of the four questions given below from Question 1. to Question 5.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity 11

Question 1.

Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the combination.

(A) 40
(B) 160
(C) 80
(D) lO
Answer:
(A) 40

Explanation:
\(\vec{a}\) = \(\vec{a}\) + \(\vec{a}\) = \(\vec{a}\)
R = 4Ω

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 2.

Current flowing through 4Ω resistor is :

(A) 1A
(B) 2A
(C) 8A
(D) 4A
Answer:
(A) 1A

Explanation:
Current flowing through the circuit = Current flowing through 4Ω Equivalent resistance of the circuit = 4Ω + 4Ω = 8Ω
Current flowing in the circuit = \(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{8 \mathrm{~V}}{8 \Omega}\) = 1A

Question 3.

Potential difference across 4Ω resistor is :

(A) 1V
(B) 2V
(C) 4V
(D) 8V
Answer:
(C) 4V
Explanation:
Potential difference across 4Ω = V1
V1 = IR1
V1 = 1A x 4Ω = 4V

Question 4.

Power dissipated in 4Ω resistor is : A

(A) 4W
(B) 2W
(C) 1W
(D) 8W
Answer:
(A) 4W

Explanation:
Power dissipated in 4Ω=p
p = VI = 4V x 1A = 4 watt

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 5.

Difference in reading of ammeter A1 and A2

(A) will become double
(B) will become half
(C) remains the same
(D) 8A
Answer:
(C) remains the same

Explanation:
Since the resistance are in series combination, hence same current will flow through each resistor. Hence ammeter reading will be same.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Study the following ray diagram :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World 1
In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by

(A) y, p and z
(B) x, q and z
(C) p, y and z
(D) p, z and y
Answer:
(C) p, y and z

Explanation:
Angle p is the angle of incidence as this angle is formed between the incident ray and the normal. Angle y is angle of emergence as it is formed between emergent ray and the normal, and angle z is the angle of deviation as it is formed between the emergent ray and the incident ray. Hence, the correct answer is p, y, z.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 2.

Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?

(A) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(B) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(C) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(D) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Answer:
(C) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection

Explanation:
Dispersion means white light getting segregated into its component colours. Refraction bends the incident light to an angle that causes internal reflection and finally rainbow is formed.

Question 3.

Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(A) dispersion of light by water droplets
(B) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(C) scattering of light by dust particles
(D) internal reflection of light by clouds
Answer:
(B) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
Explanation:
Due to refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices, the apparent position of source of light keeps on changing. So stars appear to twinkle.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 4.

At noon the sun appears white as

(A) light is least scattered.
(B) all the colours of the white light are scattered awav.
(C) blue colour is scattered the most.
(D) red colour is scattered the most.
Answer:
(A) light is least scattered.

Explanation:
Sun is directly over the head and sunlight travel relatively shorter distance causing only little of the blue and violet colours to be scattered.

Question 5.

The clear sky appears blue because

(A) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(B) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(C) violet and blue lights get scattered more than light of all other colours by the atmosphere
(D) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour light by the atmosphere
Answer:
(C) violet and blue lights get scattered more than light of all other colours by the atmosphere

Explanation:
A clear cloudless day-time sky is blue because molecules in the air scatter blue light from the sun more than they scatter red light. Rayleigh scattering is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength, so that shorter wavelength violet and blue light will scatter more than the longer wavelengths (yellow and especially red light).

Question 6.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light in air?

(A) Red light moves fastest
(B) Blue light moves faster than green light
(C) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(D) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
Answer:
(C) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed

Explanation:
Speed of light is a constant value regardless of its colour.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 7.

Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

(A) Dispersion of light
(B) Scattering of light
(C) Total internal reflection of light
(D) Reflection of light from the earth
Answer:
(B) Scattering of light

Explanation:
Red colour scatters the least so that it travels the farthest. During sunset or sunrise, light has to travel a longer distance to reach us. Hence, only red light reaches to us and the sky appears reddish.

Question 8.

In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism, a student would observe that the emergent ray

(A) is parallel to the incident ray.
(B) is along the same direction of incident ray.
(C) gets deviated and bends towards the thinner part of the prism.
(D) gets deviated and bends towards the thicker part (base) of the prism.
Answer:
(D) gets deviated and bends towards the thicker part (base) of the prism.

Explanation:
As ray emerges out of the prism, it moves from a denser to a rarer medium, and therefore, bends away from the normal. So, bends towards the thicker part (base) of the prism.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 9.

Study the following figure in which a student has marked the angle of incidence (∠i), angle of refraction (∠r), angle of emergence (∠e), angle of prism (∠A) and the angle of deviation (∠D). The correctly marked angles are:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World 2
Answer:
(A) ∠A and ∠i
(B) ∠A, ∠i and ∠r
(C) ∠A, ∠i, ∠e and ∠d
(D) ∠A, ∠i, ∠r and ∠d
Explanation:
The correctly marked angles are of ∠A and ∠i.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs 

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): A white light on passing through prism splits into its component colours as such that the red light emerges nearest to the base of the prism.
Reason (R): Wavelength of red light is more than other component colours and hence, red light deviates least.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Dispersion takes place because the refractive index of medium for different wavelengths (colours) is different. The refractive index is inversely proportional to X Since kred is more than other colours wavelength. So, deviation is least for red and it appears farthest from the base of the prism.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Sunlight reaches us without dispersion in the form of white light and not as its components.
Reason (R): Dispersion takes place due to variation of refractive index for different wavelength but in vacuum the speed of light is independent of wavelength and hence vacuum is a non-dispersive medium.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
In vacuum speed of light is independent of wavelength. Hence, no dispersion takes places in vacuum. Thus, vacuum is a non-dispersive medium in which all colours travel with the same speed.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 3.

Assertion (A): In case of rainbow, light at the inner surface of the water drop gets internally reflected.
Reason (R): The angle between the refracted ray and normal to the drop surface is greater than the critical angle.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The rainbow is formed when light at the inner surface of the water drop gets internally reflected. If the angle between the refracted ray and normal to the drop surface is greater than the critical angle.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Scattering of light is the reflection of light from an object in all directions.
Reason (R): The colour of scattered light depends on the size of scattering particles and wavelength of light.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The reflection of light from an object in all direction is called scattering of light. The colour of scattered light depends on the size of scattering particles and wavelength of light. Very fine particles scatter mainly blue light while particles of larger size scatter light of longer wavelength i.e. red light. If the size of the scattering particles is large enough, then the scattered light may even appear white.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. A narrow beam of white light is passing through a glass prism as shown in the diagram. Study the diagram and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World 3

Question 1.

The phenomenon observed in above set-up is

(A) scattering of light
(B) dispersion of light
(C) reflection of light
(D) refraction of light
Answer:
(B) dispersion of light

Explanation:
The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours after passing through a prism is called as dispersion of light. When the light enters the prism, all the colours have different speeds due to which its gets split into bands.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 2.

In nature, this phenomenon is observed in

(A) Formation of rainbow
(B) Twinkling of stars
(C) Blue colour of sky
(D) Advance sunrise
Answer:
(A) Formation of rainbow

Explanation:
Rainbow is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere which is one of the application of dispersion of light.

Question 3.

Which of the following statement is correct about constituents of white light based on above observations?

(A) White light consists of seven colours.
(B) Violet colour suffers minimum deviation.
(C) Red light suffers maximum deviation.
(D) All the colours of the white light move with different speed in vacuum.
Answer:
(A) White light consists of seven colours.

Explanation:
When the light disperses, various bands of light are clearly visible. It is clear from the figure that the violet light suffers maximum deviation and red light suffers minimum deviation .All the colours of the white light move with the same speed in air or vacuum but with different wavelengths and frequencies.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 4.

The cause of dispersion of light is

(A) All the colors of light travel with the speed more than the speed of light.
(B) All the colors have different angles of deviation.
(C) All the colors do not travel with the same speed of light.
(D) All the colors have the same wavelength .
Answer:
(C) All the colors do not travel with the same speed of light.

Explanation:
The various colours of white light have different extent of refraction in a medium, All of colours of light do not travel with same speed in the medium which is the cause of dispersion of light.

Question 5.

Read the following statements carefully

(i) The prism behaves same as that of rectangular glass slab.
(ii) All the colours have different angles of deviation in case of dispersion through prism.
(iii) All the colours travel with the same speed of light in glass.
(iv) Dispersion of light is observed in case of rectangular glass slab.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 6.

Which of the above statements is true?

(A) Only (ii)
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Only (ii)

Explanation:
A prism is made up of glass in which the faces are joined at a certain angle but in case of rectangular glass slab, the opposite faces are parallel to each other. As the light enters in the prism, all the colours travel with the different speed of light because glass is a denser medium as compared to air and dispersion of light is not observed in case of a rectangular glass slab. So, both prism and rectangular glass slab behave differently.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World Read More »

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

The laws of reflection hold true for:

(A) plane mirrors only
(B) concave mirrors only
(C) convex mirrors only
(D) all reflecting surfaces
Answer:
(D) all reflecting surfaces

Explanation:
The laws of reflection hold true for all reflecting surfaces.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 2.

When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the mirror. This image is:

(A) real
(B) inverted
(C) virtual and inverted
(D) virtual and erect
Answer:
(D) virtual and erect

Explanation:
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the mirror. This image is virtual and erect.

Question 3.

Consider the following properties of virtual images:

(i) cannot be projected on the screen
(ii) are formed by both concave and convex lens
(iii) are always erect
(iv) are always inverted The correct properties are:

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
A virtual image is formed when reflected rays appear to meet. Such images cannot be obtained on screen. Plane mirrors, convex mirror and concave lens always forms virtual image. They are always erect.

Question 4.

A real image is formed by the light rays after reflection or refraction when they:

(i) actually meet or intersect with each other.
(ii) actually converge at a point.
(iii)appear to meet when they are produced in the backward direction.
(iv) appear to diverge from a point.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (ii)

Explanation:
A real image is formed when light rays actually meet or intersect at a point after reflection or refraction.

Question 5.

The correct sequencing of angle of incidence, angle of emergence, angle of refraction and lateral displacement shown in the following diagram by digits 1,2, 3 and 4 is:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 1
(A) 2,4,1, 3
(B) 2,1, 4, 3
(C) 1, 2, 4, 3
(D) 2,1, 3, 4
Answer:
(B) 2,1, 4, 3

Explanation:
Angle 2 is angle of incidence, as it is formed between the incident ray and the normal.Angle is angle of emergence, as it is formed between the emergent ray with normal. Angle 4 is angle of reflection as it is formed between the refracted ray and the normal. 3 shows the lateral displacement. Hence, the correct answer is 2,1,4,3.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 6.

A student obtained a sharp image of a candle flame placed at the distant end of the laboratory table on a screen using a concave mirror to determine its focal length. The teacher suggested him to focus a distant building about 1 km far from the laboratory, for getting more correct value of the focal length. In order to focus the distant building on the same screen the student should slightly move the:

(A) mirror away from the screen
(B) screen away from the mirror
(C) screen towards the mirror
(D) screen towards the building
Answer:
(C) screen towards the mirror

Explanation:
The object is at infinity , so to Obtain sharp image screen should be moved towards mirror.

Question 7.

Select from the following the best experimental set-up for tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 2

(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Answer:
(D) S

Explanation:
Among the given options, S will the most suitable set up for tracing a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab.

Question 8.

To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus the image of a distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, as compared to the object is always:

(A) Laterally inverted and diminished
(B) Inverted and diminished
(C) Erect and diminished
(D) Erect and highly diminished
Answer:
(B) Inverted and diminished

Explanation:
When the object is at infinity, diminished, inverted and real image is formed.

Question 9.

In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of angle of incidence (∠i) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction (∠r) and angle of emergence (∠e).
On the basis of your observation your correct conclusion is:

(A) ∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e
(B) ∠i is less than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e
(C) ∠i is more than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r
(D) ∠i is less than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r
Answer:
(A) ∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e

Explanation:
When a ray of light passes through the glass slab, then the angle of incidence is found to be nearly equal to angle of emergence and greater than angle of refraction.

Question 10.

Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it?

(A) Concave mirror as well as convex lens
(B) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(C) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other
(D) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
Answer:
(A) Concave mirror as well as convex lens

Explanation:
When a point source of light is placed at the focus of concave mirror then all light rays after reflection through mirror will become parallel to the principal axis.
When this point source of light is placed at the focus of convex lens then after refraction by light rays convex lens will become parallel to the principal axis.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 11.

Magnification produced by a rear-view mirror fitted in vehicles

(A) is less than one.
(B) is more than one.
(C) is equal to one.
(D) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.
Answer:
(A) is less than one.

Explanation:
Convex mirror is used as rear¬view mirror in vehicles. It forms virtual, erect, and diminished images of the objects. Magnification is ratio of height of image to the height of the object, hence, magnification produced by a rear-view mirror fitted in vehicles is less than one.

Question 12.

Rays from sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?

(A) 15 cm in front of the mirror
(B) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(C) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(D) More than 30 cm in front of the mirror
Answer:
(B) 30 cm in front of the mirror

Explanation:
The distance of the sun is infinite as compared to the radius of curvature of concave mirror, so, light rays from sun incident parallel all the rays converge at the principal focus. So, the focal length is 15 cm. In case of a concave mirror, the size of image and object will be same if the object is placed at 2f. Hence, in this case object must be placed at 2/or 2×15 = 30 cm.

Question 13.

In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles, the bulb is placed

(A) between the pole and the focus of the reflector.
(B) very near to the focus of the reflector.
(C) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector.
(D) at the centre of curvature of the reflector.
Answer:
(B) very near to the focus of the reflector.

Explanation:
The rays of light passing through the principal focus will go parallel to principal axis after reflection thus, forming a concentrated beam of light. So, due to this reason in torches, search lights, and headlights of vehicles, the bulb is placed very near to the focus of the reflector.

Question 14.

Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure?

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 3
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 4

(A) Fig. A
(B) Fig. B
(C) Fig. C
(D) Fig. D
Answer:
(D) Fig. D

Explanation:
In case of concave mirror, an incident ray parallel to principle axis passes through F after reflection.

Question 15.

A student determines the focal length of a device ‘X’ by focussing the image of a distant object on a screen placed 20 cm from the device on the same side as the object. The device ‘X’ is

(A) Concave lens of focal length 10 cm
(B) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(C) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
(D) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
Answer:
(D) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm

Explanation:
Image formed by the concave mirror in this case is same as when object is at infinity. Due to the great distance, light rays will incident almost parallel to principal axis. After reflection all the rays will converge and meet at principal focus. So, focal length is 20 cm.

Question 16.

A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the lens

(A) away from the screen
(B) towards the screen
(C) to a position very far away from the screen
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object
Answer:
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object

Explanation:
The incident rays coming from the distant object will be parallel to the principal axis and as we know the rays parallel to the principal axis, after refraction by convex lens, will pass through the principal focus. Hence, a distinct image will be obtained immediately when distance between screen and lens is equal to focal length, so option (D) is correct choice.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 17.

A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for different values of the angle of incidence (∠i). He then measures the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (∠r) and the angle of emergence (∠e) for every value of the angle of incidence. On analyzing these measurements of angles, his conclusion would be

(A) ∠i > ∠r > ∠e
(B) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r
(C) ∠i < ∠r < ∠e
(D) ∠i = ∠e < ∠r
Answer:
(B) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

Explanation:
(Angle of incidence) ∠i = ∠e (angle of emergence) because the direction of incident ray and emergent ray is parallel to each other.
∠e >∠r (angle of refraction) because at point of emergence light is entering into optically rarer medium (air) from optically denser medium (glass), so light will bend away from the normal making the angle bigger.

Question 18.

An optical device has been given to a student and he determines its focal length by focusing the image of the sun on a screen placed 24 cm from the device on the same side as the sun. Select the correct statement about the device

(A) Convex mirror of focal length 12 cm
(B) Convex lens of focal length 24 cm
(C) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm
(D) Convex lens of focal length 12 cm
Answer:
(C) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm

Explanation:
Because the screen is on the same side of the object which means it cannot be a lens because it happens behind the lenses in such case. Moreover, concave mirror forms real images, that is, image can be obtained on a screen.

Question 19.

Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 5
(A) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.
(B) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.
(C) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.
(D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.
Answer:
(D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

Question 20.

A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the lens:

(A) away from the screen
(B) towards the screen
(C) to a position very far away from the screen
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.
Answer:
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

Question 21.

A teacher sets up the stand carrying a convex lens of focal length 15 cm at 42.7 cm mark on the optical bench. He asks four students A, B, C and D to suggest the position of screen on the optical bench so that a distinct image of a distant tree is obtained almost immediately on it. The positions suggested by the students were as :

(i) 12.7 cm
(ii) 29.7 cm
(iii) 57.7 cm
(iv) 72.7 cm

The correct position of the screen was suggested by

(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
Answer:
(C) (iii)

Explanation:
The incident rays coming from the distant tree placed will be parallel to the principal axis and as we know the rays parallel to the principal axis, after refraction by convex lens, will pass through the principal focus. Hence, a distinct image will be obtained immediately when distance between screen and lens is equal to focal length. 42.7 cm (position of lens on optical bench) + 15 cm (focal length of lens) = 57.7 (the position of screen on optical bench)

Question 22.

To determine the approximate focal length of the given convex lens by focussing a distant object (say, a sign board), you try to focus the image of the object on a screen. The image you obtain on the screen is always

(A) erect and laterally inverted
(B) erect and diminished
(C) inverted and diminished
(D) virtual, inverted and diminished
Answer:
(C) inverted and diminished

Explanation:
The image formed by lens will be inverted and diminished.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 23.

Suppose you have focussed on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the laboratory table using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of sun, reaching your laboratory table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the:

(A) lens slightly towards the screen
(B) lens slightly away from the screen
(C) lens slightly towards the sun
(D) lens and screen both towards the sun

Explanation:
The candle is at the farthest end of the laboratory. SO, it may be considered at a distance greater that 2Fj and hence the image of formed between F2 and ZF2. when the sun will be focussed, the image will be formed as F2. SO, the lens is to the shifted towards the screen.

Question 24.

A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of -15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be

(A) both concave.
(B) both convex.
(C) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex.
(D) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave. R
Answer:
(A) both concave.

Explanation:
As per the sign convention, the focal length of a concave mirror and a concave lens are taken as negative. Hence, both the spherical mirror and the thin spherical lens are concave in nature.

Question 25.

Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?

(A) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(B) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm
(C) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(D) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
Answer:
(C) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm

Explanation:
A magnified image of an object will be obtained when it is placed between the optical centre and focus of a convex lens. Magnification is also higher for convex lenses having shorter focal length. Therefore, for reading small letters, a convex lens of focal length 5 cm should be used.

Question 26.

Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B relative to medium A is

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 6
(A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(B) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(D) \(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Explanation:
Here, angle of incidence = 60° Angle of refraction = r = 45° Refractive index of the medium B relative to medium A
=nBA= \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\) = \(\frac{\sin 60^{\circ}}{\sin 45^{\circ}}\)
= \(=\frac{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}}{\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)}\)= \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 27.

A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in the figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 7

(A) Greater than unity
(B) Less than unity
(C) Equal to unity
(D) Zero
Answer:
(A) Greater than unity

Explanation:
Since, light rays in medium B go towards normal, so it has greater refractive index and lesser velocity of light with respect to medium A. So refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A is greater than unity.

Question 28.

Which of the following statements is true?

(A) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(B) A convex lens has – 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(C) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(D) A concave lens has – 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
Answer:
(A) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m

Explanation:
The power (P) of a lens of focal length (f) is given by P = 1/f where f is the focal length meter and power in dioptre.
Now, p = 1/f

or \(4=\frac{1}{f}\)
or \(f=\frac{1}{4} \mathrm{~m}\)=0.25m

Assertion and Reason Based Mcqs

Directions : In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Plane mirror may form real image.
Reason (R): Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Plane mirror may form real image, if object is virtual.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 8

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.
Reason (R): The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to, f = \(\frac{R}{2}\)

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
Focal length of the spherical mirror does not depend on the medium in which it is placed.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object is virtual.
Reason (R): The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly virtual if the object is real.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The image of real object may be real in case of concave mirror.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): An object is placed at a distance of from a convex mirror of focal length its image will form at infinity.
Reason (R): The distance of image in convex mirror can never be infinity.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
The distance of image in convex I mirror is always finite.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be concave.
Reason (R): The convex lens can give diverging rays.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
If the rays cross focal point of convex lens, they become diverging.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different for red light and violet light.
Reason (R): Refractive index of a pair of media depends on the wavelength of light used.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Refractive index of any pair of media is inversely proportional to wavelength of light.
Hence, λv < λr
so, µr < µv
where, λv and < λr are the wavelengths of violet and red light.µr and < µv are refractive index of violet and red light.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The refractive index of diamond is √6 and refractive index of a liquid is S. If the light travels from diamond to the liquid, it will be initially reflected when the angle of incidence is 30°. 1
Reason (R):\(\mu=\frac{1}{\sin C}, \)
where µ is the refractive index of diamond with respect to liquid.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Refractive index of diamond w.r.t. liquid
\({ }^{d} \mu_{l}=\frac{1}{\sin C}=\frac{\mu_{d}}{\mu_{l}} \Rightarrow \frac{\sqrt{6}}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{1}{\sin C}\)
sin C = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) sin 45°
∴C = 45°

Question 8.

Assertion: Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason: Glass is denser than air.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
Light travels faster in air than in glass, because glass is denser than air.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
I. Following figure illustrates the ray diagram for the formation of image by a concave mirror. The position of the object is beyond the centre of curvature of the concave mirror. On the basis of given diagram answer any four questions from
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 9
Question 1.

If the focal length of the concave mirror is 10 cm, the image formed will be at a distance .

(A) Between 10cm and 15cm
(B) Between 10cm and 20cm
(C) Beyond 20cm
(D) At 20 cm
Answer:
(B) Between 10cm and 20cm

Explanation:
If the focal length of the concave mirror is 10 cm, the image formed will be at a distance between 10 cm and 15 cm.

Question 2.

In case of concave mirror, the image distance is………. when image is formed in front of the mirror and………..when the image is formed behind the mirror.

(A) positive, negative
(B) negative, negative
(C) negative, positive
(D) positive, positive
Answer:
(C) negative, positive

Explanation:
If an image formed behind the concave mirror, the object distance is positive but if an image is formed in front of the mirror, the image distance is negative.

Question 3.

If the size of the object in the given figure is 5 cm and the magnification produced is -0.5. The size of the image is (in cm)…………..

(A) -2.5
(B) -0.1
(C) 2.5
(D) 0.1
Answer:
(A) -2.5

Explanation:
As we know, magnification,
m=\(\frac{h_{2}}{h_{1}} \)
h2 = \(\frac{-(0.5 \times 5)}{10}\)
h2 = -2.5

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 4.

A negative sign in the magnification value indicate that the image is……….

(A) Real and inverted
(B) Real and erect
(C) Virtual and erect
(D) Virtual and inverted
Answer:
(A) Real and inverted

Explanation:
A negative sign in the magnification value indicate that the image is real and inverted.

Question 5.

An image formed by concave mirror is virtual, when the object is placed:

(A) at infinity
(B) at C
(C) Between C and F
(D) Between P and F
Answer:
(D) Between P and F

Explanation:
An image formed by concave mirror is virtual, when the object is placed between P and F.

II. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of the school laboratory by using a mirror.

Question 1.

Which type of mirror should he use and why ?

(A) Convex mirror, it forms virtual image
(B) Concave mirror, it forms virtual image
(C) Concave mirror, it forms real image
(D) Convex mirror, it forms real image
Answer:
(C) Concave mirror, it forms real image

Explanation:
He should use a concave mirror as it forms real images.

Question 2.

At what distance, in terms of focal length of the mirror, should he place the candle flame to get the magnified image on the wall ? Q;

(A) At F
(B) Between F and C
(C) At C
(D) At infinity
Answer:
(B) Between F and C

Explanation:
He should place the candle flame between the focus and centre of curvature of the mirror to get the magnified image on the wall.

Question 3.

To get the diminished image of the candle flame, the object must be placed at:

(A) infinity
(B) at C
(C) between F and C
(D) At F
Answer:
(A) infinity

Explanation:
To get the diminished image of the candle flame, the object must be placed at infinity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 4.

If the image formed by this mirror is inverted and real, the magnification will be: A

(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Either of them
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Negative

Explanation:
If the image formed by this mirror is inverted and real, the magnification will be negative.

Question 5.

A virtual image formed by concave mirror is:

(A) erect and enlarged
(B) erect and diminished
(C) inverted and diminished
(D) inverted and enlarged
Answer:
(A) erect and enlarged

Explanation:
A virtual image formed by concave mirror is erect and enlarged.

III. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 60 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.

Question 1.

Suggest the type of mirror he should use:

(A) convex mirror
(B) plane mirror
(C) concave mirror
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) concave mirror

Explanation:
He should use a concave mirror, as it forms a real image on the same side of the mirror.

Question 2.

Find the linear magnification of the image produced.

(A) – 4
(B) + 4
(C) – 900
(D) + 900
Answer:
(A) – 4

Explanation:
Object distance, u = -15 cm
Image distance, v = – 60 cm
Magnification, m = \(\frac{-v}{u}=\frac{-(-60)}{(-15)}=-4 \)

The minus sign in magnification shows that the image formed is real and inverted.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 3.

When object distance is less than focal length the image is and when object distance is more than focal length the image is .

(A) real in both case
(B) virtual in both case
(C) real, virtual
(D) virtual, real
Answer:
(D) virtual, real

Explanation:
When object distance is less than focal length the image is virtual and when object distance is more than focal length the image is real.

Question 4.

What is the distance between the object and its image ?

(A) 45 cm
(B) 35 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 0 cm
Answer:
(A) 45 cm

Explanation:
The image is formed at a distance of 45 cm from the object.

Question 5.

The image formed in the above case is:

(A) virtual, inverted and magnified.
(B) real, erect and magnified
(C) real, inverted and magnified
(D) real, erect and diminished
Answer:
(C) real, inverted and magnified

Explanation:
In this case, the image is formed beyond the centre of curvature. This image is real, inverted and enlarged.

IV Read the following passage and answer the following questions from Question 1. to Question 4.
A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, on a screen. After that he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen.

Question 1.

In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen ?

(A) away from screen
(B) towards the screen
(C) should not move the screen
(D) toward the candle
Answer:
(D) toward the candle

Explanation:
Let us assume the screen to lens distance is greater than 20 cm. Since it is required to get image beyond 2F, the object should be F and 2F on other side of the lens. Hence student will move the lens towards candle. (F means a location at a distance from lens that equals the focal length of lens. 2F means distance that equals twice the focal length).

Question 2.

What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?

(A) size of image will decrease
(B) size of image will increase
(C) remains unchanged
(D) size will become too small
Answer:
(B) size of image will increase

Explanation:
Size of the image of the flame increases when object is moving towards lens, from a distance beyond 2F, then 2F, then less than 2F.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 3.

What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen ?

(A) intensity of image increases
(B) intensity of image remains same
(C) intensity of image reduces
(D) the image disappears
Answer:
(A) intensity of image increases

Explanation:
As the object (candle) is moved towards lens more light intensity is collected by lens, hence brightness of the image increase.

Question 4.

What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens ?

(A) a bright image
(B) a magnified image
(C) diminished image
(D) no image
Answer:
(D) no image

Explanation:
When the candle is very close about 5 cm, focussing the flame is not possible. Hence student will not get any image on the screen.
He will get diffused light on the screen.

V. Read the passage and note the following observations. Answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen by placing the flame at various distances from a convex lens. He noted his

Distance of flame from the lens (cm)Distance of the screen from the lens (cm)
(A) 6020
(B) 4024
(C) 3030
(D) 2440
(E) 1570

Question 1.

From the above table, find the focal length of lens without using lens formula: |AEI

(A) 15cm
(B) 30cm
(C) 40cm
(D) 60cm
Answer:
(A) 15cm

Explanation:
u = 30 cm, v = 30 cm This is possible if the object is placed at 2f ∴ 2f = 30 cm, f= 15 cm

Question 2.

Which set of observations is incorrect?

(A) (a)
(B) (c)
(C) (e)
(D) (d)
Answer:
(C) (e)

Explanation:
u = 15 cm, v = 70 cm is incorrect. This is because if the object is at focus then image is formed at infinity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 3.

In which case, the size of the object and image will be same:

(A) In (D) case
(B) In (B) case
(C) In (C) case
(D) In (A) case
Answer:
(C) In (C) case

Explanation:
In (C) case, because object is at the centre of curvature.

Question 4.

What is the change in image observed as the object is moved from infinity towards the concave lens?

(A) Size of image decreases
(B) Size of image becomes highly diminished
(C) Size of the image remains unchanged
(D) Size of the image increases slightly
Answer:
(D) Size of the image increases slightly

Explanation:
The size of the image increases slightly, though it remains diminished in comparison to the size of the object.

Question 5.

Which of the following statement is false for the formation of images by convex lens?

(A) It forms real,inverted and diminished image.
(B) It forms virtual erect and enlarged image.
(C) It forms virtual, erect, and diminished image.
(D) It forms real,inverted and enlarged image.
Answer:
(C) It forms virtual, erect, and diminished image.

Explanation:
Image formed by a convex mirror is always diminished and erect.

VI. Study the given diagram and answer any four questions from Question 1. to Question 5.
A very thin narrow beam of white light is made incident on three glass objects shown below.
Study the nature and behaviour of the emergent beam in all the three cases.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction 10

Question 1.

Following are the possibility of two emergent beams being similar. Choose the correct answer:

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) No similar emergent beams
Answer:
(B) (i) and (iii)
Explanation:
In (i) emergent beam is white and laterally displaced. In (ii) emergent beam is a spectrum of seven colours bent in different angles. In (iii) emergent beam from the second prism is white only. Similarity between (i) and (iii) as both emergent rays are white in colour

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 2.

When light enters from air to glass, the angles of incidence and refraction in air and glass are 45° and 30°, respectively. Find the refractive index of glass.

\(\text { (Given that } \sin 45^{\circ}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} ; \sin 30^{\circ}=\frac{1}{2} \text { ) } \)
(A) √2
(B) 2√2
(C) 1/(√2)
(D) 1
Answer:
(A) √2

Explanation:
\(a_{g}=\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\sin 45^{\circ}}{\sin 30^{\circ}} \)
\(=\frac{\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}{\frac{1}{2}}=\sqrt{2} \)

Question 3.

The light changes its path as its medium changes. Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?

(A) Speed of light is different in different media.
(B) Light changes its path because light only travels in straight line.
(C) Speed of light is dependent on medium through which it is passing.
(D) The light chooses the path with minimum time, as it changes its medium.
Answer:
(B) Light changes its path because light only travels in straight line.

Explanation:
Speed of light is different in different media. As the medium changes, the light has to choose a path of minimum time. Hence, the direction of the light changes. This phenomenon is known as refraction of light.

Question 4.

What is the unit of refractive index? R

(A) Pascal
(B) Joule
(C) No unit
(D) p m
Answer:
(C) No unit

Explanation:
Refractive index being a ratio of two similar quantities hence has no unit.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 5.

Light travel fastest in:

(A) Air
(B) Vacuum
(C) Glass
(D) diamond
Answer:
(B) Vacuum

Explanation:
Light waves travel fastest through a vacuum and air, and slower through other materials such as glass or water.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

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