MCQ Questions

Students who are searching for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 5 Bank Reconciliation Statement with Answers Pdf free download are compiled here to get good practice on all fundamentals. Know your preparation level on MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers. You can also verify your answers from our provided Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers. So, ace up your preparation with MCQ on Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 Objective Questions.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Select the Correct Answer

Question 1.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by
(a) Creditors
(b) Bank
(c) Account holder in a bank
(d) Debtors

Answer

Answer: (c) Account holder in a bank

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Question 2.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the balance
(a) Passbook
(b) Cash book
(c) Both passbook and cash book
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both passbook and cash book

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Question 3.
Passbook is a copy of:
(a) Customer account
(b) Bank column of cash book
(c) Cash column of cash book
(d) Receipts and payments

Answer

Answer: (a) Customer account

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Question 4.
Unfavourable bank balance means
(a) Credit balance in passbook
(b) Credit balance in cash book
(c) Debit balance in cash book
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Credit balance in cash book

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Question 5.
Favourable bank balance means :
(a) Credit balance in the cash book
(b) Credit balance in passbook
(c) Debit balance in the cash book
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

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Question 6.
A bank reconciliation statement is mainly prepared for
(a) Reconcile the cash balance of the cash book
(b) Reconcile the difference between the bank balance shown by the cash book and bank passbook
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Reconcile the difference between the bank balance shown by the cash book and bank passbook

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Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Passbook is a copy of ………………. as it appears in the ledger of the bank.

Answer

Answer: customer account

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Question 2.
When money is withdrawn from the bank, the bank ……………… the account of the customer.

Answer

Answer: debit

---

Question 3.
Normally, the cash book shows a debit balance, passbook shows ……………….. balance.

Answer

Answer: credit

---

Question 4.
Favourable balance as per the cash book means …………….. balance in the bank column of the cash book.

Answer

Answer: debit

---

Question 5.
If the cash book balance is taken as starting point the items which make the cash book balance smaller than the passbook must be ………………. for the purpose of reconciliation.

Answer

Answer: added

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Question 6.
If the passbook shows a favourable balance and if it is taken as the starting point for the purpose of bank reconciliation statement then cheques issued but not presented-for payment should be ……………… to find out cash balance.

Answer

Answer: deducted

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Question 7.
When the cheques are not presented for payment, favourable balance as per the cash book is ……………… than that of the passbook.

Answer

Answer: lower/less

---

Question 8.
When a banker collects the bills and credits the account passbook overdraft shows ……………….. balance.

Answer

Answer: less/lower

---

Question 9.
If the overdraft as per the passbook is taken as the starting point, the cheques issued but not presented are to be ………………… in the bank reconciliation statement.

Answer

Answer: added

---

Question 10.
When the passbook balance is taken as the starting point items which makes the passbook balance ……………… than the balance in the cash book must be deducted for the purpose of reconciliation.

Answer

Answer: higher

---

State whether each of the following statements is True or False.

Question 1.
Passbook is the statement of account of the customer maintained by the bank.

Answer

Answer: True

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Question 2.
A business firm periodically prepares a bank reconciliation statement to reconcile the bank balance as per the cash book with the passbook as these two show different balances for various reasons.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Cheques issued but not presented for payment will reduce the balance as per the passbook.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Cheques deposited but not collected will result in increasing the balance of the cash book when compared to passbook.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Overdraft as per the passbook is less than the overdraft as per cash book when there are cheques deposited but not collected by the banker.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
The debit balance of the bank account as per the cash book should be equal to the credit balance of the account of the business in the books of the bank.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Favourable bank balance as per the cash book will be less than the bank passbook balance when there are unpresented cheques for payment.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
Direct collections received by the bank on behalf of the customers would increase the balance as per the bank passbook when compared to the balance as per the cash book.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
When payments made by the bank as per the standing instructions of the customer, the balance in the passbook will be more when compared to the cash book.

Answer

Answer: False

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Motion Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Motion Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Motion Multiple Choice Questions of Class 9 Science Chapter 8 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Motion Class 9 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 8 Science Class 9 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Who gave the equations of motion for the first time?
(a) Bernhard Nobel
(b) Issac Newton
(c) C. V. Raman
(d) Einstein

Answer

Answer: (b) Issac Newton

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Acceleration Calculator computes the rate of change of an object speed easily. It takes time, velocity as input & generates acceleration as output quickly.

Question 2.
The displacement of the object in a unit time is called:
(a) speed
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) average speed

Answer

Answer: (b) velocity

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Question 3.
The rate of change of velocity per second is known as:
(a) acceleration
(b) speed
(c) average velocity
(d) linear motion

Answer

Answer: (a) acceleration

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Question 4.
If the velocity of an object changes from an initial value u to the final value v in time t, the acceleration a will be:
(a) a = \(\frac{v-u}{t}\)
(b) a = \(\frac{v+u}{t}\)
(c) a = \(\frac{t}{v-u}\)
(d) a = \(\frac{t}{v+u}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) a = \(\frac{v-u}{t}\)

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Question 5.
What is the unit of acceleration?
(a) m/s
(b) m/s²
(c) ms
(d) m/s³

Answer

Answer: (b) m/s²

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Question 6.
The unit of speed and velocity both is:
(a) ms^-1
(b) ms^-2
(c) ms²
(d) ms

Answer

Answer: (a) ms^-1

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Question 7.
A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
(a) zero
(b) πr
(c) 2r
(d) 2πr

Answer

Answer: (c) 2r

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Question 8.
A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is:
(a) u/g
(b) u²/2g
(c) u²/g
(d) u/2g

Answer

Answer: (b) u²/2g

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Question 9.
The slope of a velocity-time graph gives:
(a) the distance
(b) the displacement
(c) the acceleration
(d) the speed

Answer

Answer: (c) the acceleration

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Question 10.
If the displacement of an object is proportional to the square of time, then the object moves with:
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

Answer

Answer: (b) uniform acceleration

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Fill in the Blanks.

Question 11.
Newton’s ________ law is based on the concept of inertia.

Answer

Answer: first

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Question 12.
Negative acceleration is known as __________

Answer

Answer: retardation

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Question 13.
If the path of a moving object is a straight line then, such a motion is known as a _________

Answer

Answer: linear motion

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Question 14.
_______ and ______ laid down the scientific foundation of concept of motion.

Answer

Answer: Galileo, Newton

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Question 15.
Velocity is _______ quantity.

Answer

Answer: vector

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Question 16.
During the uniform motion of an object along a straight line, the velocity remains _______ with time.

Answer

Answer: constant

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Question 17.
The initial velocity of an object moving from the position of rest is _________

Answer

Answer: zero

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Question 18.
The displacement of the object in a unit time is called __________

Answer

Answer: velocity

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True/False.

Question 19.
Acceleration is a measure of the change in the velocity of an object per unit of time.

Answer

Answer: True

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Question 20.
The acceleration of an object is indirectly proportional to the net applied force.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 21.
Motion is a change of position, it can be described in terms of the distance moved or the displacement.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
The simplest type of motion is the motion along a straight line.

Answer

Answer: True

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Question 23.
Automobiles are fitted with a device that shows the distance travelled. Such a device is known as an odometer.

Answer

Answer: True

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Match the Column.

Question 24.

A	B
1. C.G.S. unit of acceleration	(i) Distance
2. Motion of a pendulum	(ii) cm/s2
3. Scalar quantity	(iii) Simple harmonic motion
4. Momentum	(iv) Velocity/time
5. Acceleration	(v) Vector quantity

Answer

Answer:

A	B
1. C.G.S. unit of acceleration	(ii) cm/s2
2. Motion of a pendulum	(iii) Simple harmonic motion
3. Scalar quantity	(i) Distance
4. Momentum	(v) Vector quantity
5. Acceleration	(iv) Velocity/time

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Answer in one Word/Sentence.

Question 25.
Write the unit of momentum.

Answer

Answer: kg m/s or kg ms^-1

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Question 26.
Give one example of simple harmonic motion.

Answer

Answer: Motion of the pendulum of a clock

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Question 27.
A body is moving with constant velocity, then what will be the acceleration of that body?

Answer

Answer: zero (0)

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Question 28.
What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

Answer

Answer: The distance travelled

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Question 29.
The motion of an athlete moving along a circular path, is an example of what type of motion?

Answer

Answer: An accelerated motion

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 9 Science Motion MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 14 Physics Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
In the figure, assuming the diodes to be ideal,

(a) D₁ is forward biased and D₂ is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(b) D₂ is forward biased and D₁ is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A and vice versa.
(c) D₁ and D₂ are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(d) D₁ and D₂ are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and vice versa.

Answer

Answer: (b) D₂ is forward biased and D₁ is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A and vice versa.

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Question 2.
Hole is
(a) an anti-particle of electron.
(b) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond.
(c) absence of free electrons.
(d) an artificially created particle.

Answer

Answer: (b) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond.

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Question 3.
For the depletion region of a diode which one is incorrect?
(a) There are no mobile charges.
(b) Equal number of holes and electrons exists, making the region neutral.
(c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
(d) Immobile charged ions exist.

Answer

Answer: (a) There are no mobile charges.

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Question 4.
To reduce the ripples in a rectifier circuit with capacitor filter which one is false?
(a) R_L should be increased.
(b) Input frequency should be decreased.
(c) Input frequency should be increased.
(d) Capacitors with high capacitance should be used.

Answer

Answer: (b) Input frequency should be decreased.

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Question 5.
Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterised by valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to (E_g)C, (E_g)Si and (E_g) Ge. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) (E_g)Si < (E_g)Ge < (E_g)C
(b) (E_g)C < (E_g)Ge > (E_g)Si
(c) (E_g)C > (E_g)Si > (E_g)Ge
(d) (E_g)C = (E_g)Si = (E_g)Ge

Answer

Answer: (c) (E_g)C > (E_g)Si > (E_g)Ge

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Question 6.
In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them.
(b) they move across the junction by the potential difference.
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region.

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Question 7.
In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating:
(a) affects only reverse resistance
(b) affects only forward resistance
(c) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(d) affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction

Answer

Answer: (d) affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction

---

Question 8.
A specimen of silicon is to be made p-type semiconductor for this one atom of indium, on an average, is doped in 5 × 10⁷ silicon atoms. If the number density of silicon is 5 × 10²² atoms m^-3, then the number of acceptor atoms per cm³ will be
(a) 2.5 × 10³⁰
(b) 1.0 × 10¹³
(c) 1.0 × 10¹⁵
(d) 2.5 × 10³⁶

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.0 × 10¹⁵

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Question 9.
The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R₁ will be:

(a) 1.43 A
(b) 3.13 A
(c) 2.5 A
(d) 10.0 A

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.5 A

---

Question 10.
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:

(a) 0 A
(b) 10^-2A
(c) 10^-1 A
(d) 10^-3 A

Answer

Answer: (b) 10^-2A

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II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
At room temperature …………………… is the energy gap for silicon.

Answer

Answer: 1.12 eV

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Question 2.
A pure semiconductor which is free of impurity is called …………………… semiconductor.

Answer

Answer: Intrinsic

---

Question 3.
When an impurity is added to a pure semiconductor it becomes …………………… semiconductor.

Answer

Answer: Extrinsic

---

Question 4.
There are …………………… types of extrinsic semiconductors.

Answer

Answer: Two

---

Question 5.
Mobility of hole is …………………… than that of electrons.

Answer

Answer: Less

---

Question 6.
…………………… is deliberate addition of desirable impurity atoms into an intrinsic semiconductor to increase its electrical conductivity.

Answer

Answer: Doping

---

Question 7.
…………………… type is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a pentavalent impurity.

Answer

Answer: n

---

Question 8.
…………………… type is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a trivalent impurity.

Answer

Answer: P

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Question 9.
…………………… are the majority carriers in N-type semiconductor.

Answer

Answer: Electrons

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Question 10.
…………………… are the majority carriers in P-type semiconductor.

Answer

Answer: Holes

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Question 11.
Two important processes that occur during the formation of a p-n junction are …………………… and ……………………

Answer

Answer: diffusion and drift

---

Question 12.
The …………………… is the fictitious battery, which seems to be connected across the junction with its positive terminal in the n-region and the negative terminal in the p-region.

Answer

Answer: potential barrier

---

Question 13.
The region around the junction, which is devoid of any mobile charge carriers, is called the ……………………

Answer

Answer: depletion layer or region

---

Question 14.
In p-n junction diode there is a …………………… of majority carriers across the junction in forward bias.

Answer

Answer: Diffusion

---

Question 15.
A p-n junction is said to be …………………… based if the p-type semiconductor is connected to the positive terminal and the n-type semiconductor is connected to the negative terminal of an external battery.

Answer

Answer: Forward

---

Question 16.
The resistance of p-n junction is …………………… when reverse biased.

Answer

Answer: High

---

Question 17.
A …………………… is a device, which converts ac into pulsating dc, i.e. unidirectional current.

Answer

Answer: rectifier

---

Question 18.
The output frequency of the half wave rectifier is …………………… as the input frequency.

Answer

Answer: same

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Question 19.
LED works under …………………… bias.

Answer

Answer: Forward

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Question 20.
The Zener diode is always …………………… biased.

Answer

Answer: reverse

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Question 21.
A photo diode is always …………………… biased.

Answer

Answer: 1.8 eV

---

Question 22.
The semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LEDs must at least have a band gap of ……………………

Answer

Answer: Reverse

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Hope the information shared regarding the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information regarding CBSE Class 12 Physics Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers is missing do reach us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Communication Systems Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Communication Systems Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Communication Systems Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Communication Systems Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 15 Physics Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
A carrier frequency of 1 MHz and peak value of 10 V is amplitude modulated with a signal frequency of 10 kHz with peak value of 0.5 V. Then the modulation index and the side band frequencies respectively are
(a) 0.05 and 1 ± 0.010 MHz
(b) 0.5 and 1 ± 0.010 MHz
(c) 0.05 and 1 ± 0.005 MHz
(d) 0.5 and 1 ± 0.005 MHz
(e) 0.05 and 1 ± 0.100 MHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.05 and 1 ± 0.010 MHz

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Question 2.
The maximum line – of – sight distance dM between two antennas having heights hT and hR above the earth is
(a) \(\sqrt{R(h_T+h_R)}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{2R/(h_T+h_R)}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{Rh_T}\) + \(\sqrt{2Rh_R}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{2Rh_T}\) + \(\sqrt{2Rh_R}\)
(e) \(\sqrt{2Rh_T}\) + \(\sqrt{Rh_R}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\sqrt{2Rh_T}\) + \(\sqrt{2Rh_R}\)

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Question 3.
The frequency band used in the downlink of satellite communication is
(a) 9.5 to 2.5 GHz
(b) 896 to 901 MHz
(c) 3.7 to 4.2 GHz
(d) 840 to 935 MHz
(e) 3.7 to 4.2 MHz

Answer

Answer: (c) 3.7 to 4.2 GHz

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Question 4.
In amplitude modulation, the bandwidth is
(a) twice the audio signal frequency
(b) thrice the audio signal frequency
(c) thrice the carrier wave frequency
(d) twice the carrier wave frequency
(e) sum of audio signal frequency and carrier wave frequency

Answer

Answer: (a) twice the audio signal frequency

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Question 5.
If both the length of an antenna and the wavelength of the signal to be transmitted are doubled, the power radiated by the antenna
(a) is doubled
(b) is halved
(c) remains constant
(d) is quadrupled
(e) increases 16 times

Answer

Answer: (c) remains constant

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Question 6.
If the maximum amplitude of an amplitude modulated wave is 25 V and the minimum amplitude is 5 V, the modulation index is
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{5}\)
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{3}\)
(c) \(\frac { 3 }{2}\)
(d) \(\frac { 2 }{5}\)
(e) \(\frac { 2 }{3}\)

Answer

Answer: (e) \(\frac { 2 }{3}\)

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Question 7.
A modem is a
(a) modulating device only
(b) demodulating device only
(c) modulating and demodulating device
(d) transmitting device
(e) receiving device

Answer

Answer: (c) modulating and demodulating device

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Question 8.
The distance of coverage of a transmitting antenna is 12.8 km. Then, the height of the antenna is (Given that radius of earth = 6400 km)
(a) 6.4 m
(b) 12.8 m
(c) 3.2 m
(d) 16 m
(e) 25.6 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 12.8 m

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Question 9.
If E_c = 20 sin 10⁵ πt and E_m = 10 sin 400 πt are carrier and modulating signals, the modulation index is
(a) 56%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 48%
(e) 60%

Answer

Answer: (c) 50%

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Question 10.
Which one of the following is incorrect statement in the transmission of electromagnetic waves?
(a) Ground wave propagation is for high frequency transmission
(b) Sky wave propagation is facilitated by ionospheric layers
(c) Space wave is of high frequency and is suitable for line of sight communication
(d) Space wave is used for satellite communication
(e) Very high frequency waves cannot be reflected by the ionospheric layers

Answer

Answer: (a) Ground wave propagation is for high frequency transmission

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Question 11.
1000 kHz carrier wave is amplitude modulated by the signal frequency 200 – 4000 Hz. The channel width of this case is
(a) 8 kHz
(b) 4 kHz
(c) 7.6 kHz
(d) 3.8 kHz
(e) 400 kHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 8 kHz

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Question 12.
If the TV telecast is to cover a radius of 120 km (given the radius of the earth = 6400 km), the height of the transmitting antenna is
(a) 1280 m
(b) 1125 m
(c) 1560 m
(d) 79 m
(d) 1050 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 1125 m

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Question 13.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following
(a) AM detection is carried out using a rectifier and an envelop detector
(b) Pulse position denotes the time of rise or fall of the pulse amplitude.
(c) Modulation index p is kept ≥ 1, to avoid distortion.
(d) Facsimile (FAX) scans the contents of the document to create electronic signals.
(e) Detection is the process of recovering the modulating signal from the modulated carrier wave.

Answer

Answer: (c) Modulation index p is kept ≥ 1, to avoid distortion.

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Question 14.
The mobile telephones operate typically in the range of
(a) 1 – 100 MHz
(b) 100 – 200 MHz
(c) 1000 – 2000 MHz
(d) 800 – 950 MHz
(e) 10 – 1000 MHz

Answer

Answer: (d) 800 – 950 MHz

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Question 15.
A television tower of height 140 m can broadcast its signal upto a maximum area of (Radius of earth = 6.4 × 10⁶m)
(a) 1.56 × 10⁶ km²
(b) 5.6 × 10³ km²
(c) 5.6 × 10¹⁰ km²
(d) 1.56 × 10⁹ km²
(e) 1.56 × 10⁴ km²

Answer

Answer: (b) 5.6 × 10³ km²

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Question 16.
The waves that are bent down by the ionosphere are
(a) ground waves
(b) surface waves
(c) direct waves
(d) space waves
(e) sky waves

Answer

Answer: (e) sky waves

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Question 17.
A ground receiver in line-of-sight communication cannot receive direct waves due to
(a) its low frequency
(b) curvature of earth
(c) its high intensity
(d) smaller antenna
(e) both its low frequency and high intensity

Answer

Answer: (b) curvature of earth

---

Question 18.
In an amplitude modulation with modulation index 0.5, the ratio of the amplitude of the carrier wave to that of the side band in the modulated wave is
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
(e) 1 : 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 : 1

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Question 19.
An example of point to point mode of communication is
(a) FM radio
(b) standard FM radio
(c) television
(d) internet
(e) telephony

Answer

Answer: (e) telephony

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Question 20.
A signal of peak voltage 5 V at 10 kHz is modulated using a carrier wave of peak voltage 10 V at 2 MHz. The side band frequencies are
(a) 2010 kHz, 1990 kHz
(b) 2000 kHz, 1990 kHz
(c) 2010 kHz, 2000 kHz
(d) 2100 kHz, 1900 kHz
(e) 2200 kHz, 1800 kHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 2010 kHz, 1990 kHz

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Question 21.
The range of frequency bands used for television VHF service is
(a) 540- 1600 kHz
(b) 88 – 108 MHz
(c) 3.7-4.2 GHz
(d) 54 – 72 MHz
(e) 174 – 216 MHz

Answer

Answer: (d) 54 – 72 MHz

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Question 22.
The radiating power of a linear antenna of length l for a wave of wavelength λ is proportional to
(a) \(\frac { l }{λ}\)
(b) \(\frac { l^2 }{λ^2}\)
(c) \(\frac { l }{λ^2}\)
(d) \(\frac { l^2 }{λ}\)
(e) \(\frac { l }{√λ}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac { l^2 }{λ^2}\)

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Question 23.
A signal of 5 kHz frequency modulates a carrier of frequency 1 MHz and peak voltage 25 V. If the amplitude at the sidebands of the amplitude modulated signal is 5 V, then the modulation index is
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.2
(e) 0.4

Answer

Answer: (e) 0.4

---

Question 24.
A repeater is a combination of
(a) receiver and modulator
(b) receiver and transducer
(c) receiver and transmitter
(d) receiver and amplifier
(e) amplifier and transmitter

Answer

Answer: (c) receiver and transmitter

---

Question 25.
If the pulse duration varies in accordance with the modulating voltage, then the modulation is called as
(a) PAM
(b) PWM
(c) PPM
(d) FM
(e) PCM

Answer

Answer: (b) PWM

---

Question 26.
The increasing order of the frequency bands used for various communication services is
(a) space waves, sky waves, ground waves
(b) space waves, ground waves, sky waves
(c) sky waves, ground waves, space waves
(d) ground waves, sky waves, space waves
(e) sky waves, space waves, ground waves

Answer

Answer: (d) ground waves, sky waves, space waves

---

Question 27.
A point-to-point communication mode is seen in
(a) Satellite cable communication
(b) Television transmission
(c) FM radio transmission
(d) AM radio transmission
(e) Fax transmission

Answer

Answer: (e) Fax transmission

---

Question 28.
If the heights of transmitting and the receiving antennas are each equal to h, the maximum line-of- sight distance between them is (R is the radius of earth)
(a) \(\sqrt {2Rh}\)
(b) \(\sqrt {4Rh}\)
(c) \(\sqrt {6Rh}\)
(d) \(\sqrt {8Rh}\)
(e) \(\sqrt {Rh}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\sqrt {8Rh}\)

---

Question 29.
The ionospheric layer acts as a reflector for the frequency range
(a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
(b) 3 to 30 MHz
(c) 3 to 30 kHz
(d) 100 kHz to 1 MHz
(e) 3 GHz to 30 GHz

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 to 30 MHz

---

Question 30.
An AM radio station operating at 630 kHz is permitted to broadcast audio frequencies up to 6 kHz. The band pass filter in its modulation circuit can retain the frequencies
(a) 636 kHz, 630 kHz
(b) 12 kHz, 6 kHz
(c) 1260 kHz, 6 kHz
(d) 1260 kHz, 630 kHz
(e) 6 kHz, 630 kHz

Answer

Answer: (a) 636 kHz, 630 kHz

---

Question 31.
A transducer, in communication system is a device that
(a) is a part of the antenna
(b) is a combination of a receiver and a transmitter
(c) converts audio signals into video signals
(d) detects the incoming signal
(e) converts physical variable into corresponding variations in the electrical signal

Answer

Answer: (e) converts physical variable into corresponding variations in the electrical signal

---

Question 32.
Identify the mismatched pair
(a) Noise – Unwanted signals
(b) Repeater – Communication satellite
(c) Transducer – Energy converter
(d) Demodulation – Retrieval of information
(e) Attenuation – Strengthening of signal

Answer

Answer: (e) Attenuation – Strengthening of signal

---

Question 33.
Pick out the wrong statement
(a) Analog signals provide a continuous set of values
(b) Digital signals represent values as discrete steps
(c) Analog signals cannot utilize the binary system
(d) Digital signals can be processed by logic gates
(e) Digital signals can utilize decimal as well as binary systems

Answer

Answer: (e) Digital signals can utilize decimal as well as binary systems

---

Question 34.
A ground receiver receives a signal at 5 MHz, transmitted by a ground transmitter at a height of 320 m, which is 110 km away from it. Then it can communicate through (radius of earth R = 6400 km)
(a) space waves
(b) ground waves
(c) sky waves
(d) both sky and ground waves
(e) sky waves, ground waves and space waves

Answer

Answer: (c) sky waves

---

Question 35.
The power radiated by a linear antenna of length l at wavelength λ is
(a) directly proportional to l
(b) inversely proportional to λ
(c) inversely proportional to l
(d) directly proportional to λ²

Answer

Answer: (d) directly proportional to λ²

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these The Solid State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

The Solid State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the The Solid State Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on The Solid State Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 1 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Close packing is maximum in the crystal which is
(a) bcc
(b) fee
(c) simple cubic
(d) end centred cubic

Answer

Answer: (b) fee

---

Question 2.
In a solid lattice, the cation has left a lattice site and is located at an interstitial position. The lattice defect is
(a) n-type
(b) p-type
(c) Frenkel defect
(d) Schottky defect

Answer

Answer: (c) Frenkel defect

---

Question 3.
The coordination number of metal crystallizing in a hexagonal close packing structure are
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (a) 12

---

Question 4.
In a body centred unit cell, the number of atoms present is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 2

---

Question 5.
In a trigonal crystal
(a) a = b = c, α = ß = γ ≠ 90°
(b) a = b ≠ c, α = ß = γ = 90°
(c) a ≠ b ≠ c, α = ß = γ = 90°
(d) a = b ≠ c, α = ß = 90°, γ = 120°

Answer

Answer: (a) a = b = c, α = ß = γ ≠ 90°

---

Question 6.
The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) F-centre
(d) Interstitial position

Answer

Answer: (c) F-centre

---

Question 7.
In a body centred cubic structure, the space occupied is about
(a) 74%
(b) 20%
(c) 68%
(d) 52.4%

Answer

Answer: (c) 68%

---

Question 8.
Some polar crystals when heated produce small electrical current. The phenomenon is called
(a) Ferroelectricity
(b) Anti-ferroelectricity
(c) Pyroelectricity
(d) Piezoelectricity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pyroelectricity

---

Question 9.
The empty space within hep arrangement is
(a) 34%
(b) 47.6%
(c) 32%
(d) 26%

Answer

Answer: (d) 26%

---

Question 10.
A crystal system with axes a ≠ b ≠ c and angles α ≠ ß ≠ γ ≠ 90° corresponds to
(a) monoclinic
(b) triclinic
(c) cubic
(d) tetragonal

Answer

Answer: (b) triclinic

---

Question 11.
The number of Cl^– ions present around each Na⁺ ion in NaCl crystal lattice is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d) 6

---

Question 12.
To get n-type semiconductor from silicon, it should be doped with an element having valence electrons of
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5

---

Question 13.
Volume occupied by atoms in fee is
(a) 74%
(b) 68%
(c) 52.4%
(d) 75%

Answer

Answer: (a) 74%

---

Question 14.
Percentage empty space in a bcc arrangement is
(a) 74%
(b) 68%
(c) 32%
(d) 26%

Answer

Answer: (c) 32%

---

Question 15.
To get p-type semiconductor, impurity to be added to silicon should have which of the following number of valence electrons?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 3

---

Question 16.
A ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent magnet when it is placed in a magnetic field because
(a) all the domains get oriented in the direction of magnetic field.
(b) all the domains get oriented in the direction opposite to the magnetic field.
(c) domains get oriented randomly.
(d) domains are not affected by magnetic field.

Answer

Answer: (a) all the domains get oriented in the direction of magnetic field.

---

Question 17.
The presence of F-centres in a crystal make it
(a) conducting
(b) non-conducting
(c) coloured
(d) colourless

Answer

Answer: (c) coloured

---

Question 18.
The number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell of a fee lattice of similar atoms is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (c) 8

---

Question 19.
Fe, Co and Ni are
(a) ferri magnetic materials
(b) anti-ferromagnetic materials
(c) ferromagnetic materials
(d) diamagnetic materials

Answer

Answer: (c) ferromagnetic materials

---

Question 20.
Due to Frenkel defect, the density of the ionic solids
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) depends on pressure

Answer

Answer: (c) does not change

---

Question 21.
Which of the following is an amorphous solid?
(a) graphite
(b) glass
(c) chrome alum
(d) silicon carbide

Answer

Answer: (b) glass

---

Question 22.
In a face-centred cubic unit cell, the edge length is
(a) \(\frac { 4 }{√3}\) r
(b) \(\frac { 4 }{√2}\) r
(c) 2 r
(d) \(\frac { √3 }{2}\) r

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac { 4 }{√2}\) r

---

Question 23.
Amorphous solid is
(a) rubber
(b) plastic
(c) glass
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (d) all

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 24.
Assertion: In any ionic solid (MX) with Schottky defects, the number of positive and negative ions are same.
Reason: Equal number of cation and anion vacancies are present.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 25.
Assertion: ZnS has a tetrahedral arrangement.
Reason: In ZnS, S^2- ions occupy the tetrahedral sites while Zn²⁺ ions form cubic close packed structure.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

---

Question 26.
Assertion: In CsCl structure, the co-ordination number of Cs⁺ ion is 8.
Reason: Cl^– ions in CsCl have body centred cubic arrangement.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

---

Question 27.
Assertion: In ZnO, the excess Zn²⁺ ions are present in interstitial sites.
Reason: Metal excess crystals have either missing cation or anion in interstitial site.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

---

Question 28.
Assertion: FeO is non-stoichiometric with Fe_o.95O.
Reason: Some Fe²⁺ ions are replaced by Fe³⁺ as 3Fe²⁺ = 2Fe³⁺ to maintain electrical neutrality.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 29.
Assertion: In CaF₂, P ions occupy all the tetrahedral sites.
Reason: The number of Ca²⁺ is double the number of F^– ions.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

---

Question 30.
Assertion: Size of cation is larger in tetrahedral void than in octahedral void.
Reason: The cations occupy less space than anions in crystal close packing.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

---

Question 31.
Assertion: Frenkel defect is shown by silver halides.
Reason: Silver ions are small in size and can easily fit in interstitial sites.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 32.
Assertion: In Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid does not change.
Reason: In Frenkel defect, no cation or anion leaves the crystal.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 33.
Assertion: Frenkel and Schottky defects are stoichiometric defects.
Reason: Both defects change the density of the crystalline solid.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

---

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Students are advised to practice the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers and assess their preparation level.

Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Solving the Solutions Multiple Choice Questions of Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on Solutions Class 12 with answers pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the MCQ of Chapter 2 Chemistry Class 12 and cross-check your answers during preparation.

Question 1.
Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
(a) mole fraction
(b) parts per million
(c) mass percentage
(d) molality

Answer

Answer: (a) mole fraction

---

Question 2.
On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature, solution feels cool to touch. Under which of the following cases dissolution of sugar will be most rapid?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water.
(b) Sugar crystals in hot water.
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water.
(d) Powdered sugar in hot water.

Answer

Answer: (d) Powdered sugar in hot water.

---

Question 3.
At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is ………….
(a) less than the rate of crystallisation
(b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crystallisation
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (c) equal to the rate of crystallisation

---

Question 4.
A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’. Precipitation of substance ‘A’ takes place when small amount of ‘A’ is added to the solution. The solution is ………………
(a) saturated
(b) supersaturated
(c) unsaturated
(d) concentrated

Answer

Answer: (b) supersaturated

---

Question 5.
Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified amount of a given liquid solvent does not depend upon .
(a) temperature
(b) nature of solute
(c) pressure
(d) nature of solvent

Answer

Answer: (c) pressure

---

Question 6.
Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to
(a) low temperature
(b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high atmospheric pressure
(d) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure

Answer

Answer: (b) low atmospheric pressure

---

Question 7.
Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following mixtures will show a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Methanol and acetone.
(b) Chloroform and acetone.
(c) Nitric acid and water.
(d) Phenol and aniline.

Answer

Answer: (a) Methanol and acetone.

---

Question 8.
Colligative properties depend on
(a) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution.
(b) the number of solute particles in solution.
(c) the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution.
(d) the nature of solvent particles.

Answer

Answer: (b) the number of solute particles in solution.

---

Question 9.
Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
(o) 1.0 M NaOH
(b) 1.0 M Na₂SO₄
(c) 1.0 M NH₄NO₃
(d) 1.0 M KNO₃

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.0 M Na₂SO₄

---

Question 10.
The unit of ebullioscopic constant is
(a) K kg mol^-1 or K (molality)^-1
(b) mol kg K^-1 or K^-1 (molality)
(c) kg mol^-1 K^-1 or K^-1 (molality)^-1
(d) K mol kg^-1 or K (molality)

Answer

Answer: (a) K kg mol^-1 or K (molality)^-1

---

Question 11.
In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M MgCl₂ solution is ………..
(a) the same
(b) about twice
(c) about three times
(d) about six times

Answer

Answer: (c) about three times

---

Question 12.
An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle shrivels because ………..
(a) it gains water due to osmosis.
(b) it loses water due to reverse osmosis.
(c) it gains water due to reverse osmosis.
(d) it loses water due to osmosis.

Answer

Answer: (d) it loses water due to osmosis.

---

Question 13.
At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a concentrated solution of a substance
(a) is higher than that of a dilute solution.
(b) is lower than that of a dilute solution.
(c) is same as that of a dilute solution.
(d) cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of dilute solution.

Answer

Answer: (a) is higher than that of a dilute solution.

---

Question 14.
Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same depression in freezing point.
(b) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation π = cRT (where c is the molarity of the solution).
(c) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride, potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is BaCl₂ > KCl > CH₃COOH > sucrose.
(d) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.

Answer

Answer: (a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same depression in freezing point.

---

Question 15.
The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and K₂SO₄, respectively, are
(a) 2, 2 and 2
(b) 2, 2 and 3
(c) 1,1 and 2
(d) 1, 1 and 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 2, 2 and 3

---

Question 16.
Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Units of atmospheric pressure and osmotic pressure are the same.
(b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower concentration of solute to a region of higher concentration.
(c) The value of molal depression constant depends on nature of solvent.
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a dimensionless quantity.

Answer

Answer: (b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower concentration of solute to a region of higher concentration.

---

Question 17.
Value of Henry’s constant, K_H
(a) increases with increase in temperature.
(b) decreases with increase in temperature.
(c) remains constant.
(d) first increases then decreases.

Answer

Answer: (a) increases with increase in temperature.

---

Question 18.
The value of Henry’s constant K_H is
(a) greater for gases with higher solubility.
(b) greater for gases with lower solubility.
(c) constant for all gases.
(d) not related to the solubility of gases.

Answer

Answer: (b) greater for gases with lower solubility.

---

Question 19.
Consider the figure given below and mark the correct option.

(a) Water will move from side (A) to side (B) if a pressure lower than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
(b) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
(c) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
(d) Water will move from side (A) to side (B) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (A).

Answer

Answer: (b) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).

---

Question 20.
We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentrations 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor for these solutions will be in the order
(a) i_A < i_B < i_C
(b) i_A > i_B > i_C
(c) i_A = i_B = i_C
(d) i_A < i_B > i_C

Answer

Answer: (c) i_A = i_B = i_C

---

Question 21.
On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
Information:
(A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture, intermolecular interactions of A-A and B-B types are nearly same as A-B type interactions.
(B) In ethanol and acetone mixture, A-A or B-B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A-B
type interactions.
(C) In chloroform and acetone mixture, A-A or B-B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A-B type interactions.
(a) Solutions (B) and (C) will follow Raoult’s law.
(b) Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.
(c) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

Answer

Answer: (b) Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.

---

Question 22.
Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken. One of these beakers, labelled as “A”, was filled with 400 mL water whereas the beaker labelled “B” was filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of NaCl. At the same temperature both the beakers were placed in closed containers of same material and same capacity as shown in the figure given below:

At a given temperature, which of the following statements is correct about the vapour pressure of pure water and that of NaCl solution?
(a) Vapour pressure in container (A) is more than that in container (B).
(b) Vapour pressure in container (A) is less than that in container (B).
(c) Vapour pressure is equal in both the containers.
(d) Vapour pressure in container (B) is twice the vapour pressure in container (A).

Answer

Answer: (a) Vapour pressure in container (A) is more than that in container (B).

---

Question 23.
If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at some specific composition, then .
(a) A-B interactions are stronger than those between A-A or B-B.
(b) Vapour pressure of solution increases because more number of molecules of liquids A and B can escape from the solution.
(c) Vapour pressure of solution decreases because less number of molecules of only one of the liquids escape from the solution.
(d) A-B interactions are weaker than those between A-A or B-B.

Answer

Answer: (d) A-B interactions are weaker than those between A-A or B-B.

---

Question 24.
4 L of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NaCl was diluted by adding one litre of water. The molality of the resultant solution is
(a) 0.004
(b) 0.008
(c) 0.012
(d) 0.016

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.016

---

Question 25.
On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
Information: On adding acetone to methanol some of the hydrogen bonds between methanol molecules break.
(a) At specific composition, methanol- acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
(b) At specific composition, methanol- acetone mixture forms maximum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
(c) At specific composition, methanol- acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) At specific composition, methanol- acetone mixture will form maximum boiling azeotrope and will show
negative deviation from Raoult’s law.

Answer

Answer: (a) At specific composition, methanol- acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

---

Question 26.
K_H value for Ar(g), CO₂(g), HCHO (g) and CH₄(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10^-5 and 0.413 respectively.
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
(a) HCHO < CH₄ < CO₂ < Ar
(b) HCHO < CO₂ < CH₄ < Ar
(c) Ar < CO₂ < CH₄ < HCHO
(d) Ar < CH₄ < CO₂ < HCHO

Answer

Answer: (c) Ar < CO₂ < CH₄ < HCHO

---

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

Question 27.
Assertion: ΔH_mix and ΔV_mix are zero for the ideal solution.
Reason: The interactions between the particles of the components of a solution are almost identical as between particles in the liquids.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 28.
Assertion: Increasing pressure on water decreases its freezing point.
Reason: Density of water is maximum at 273 K.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

---

Question 29.
Assertion: 0.1 M glucose solution has higher increment in the freezing point than 0.1 M urea solution.
Reason: K_f for both has same values.

Answer

Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct statement.

---

Question 30.
Assertion: Cooking time in pressure cookers is reduced.
Reason: Boiling point inside the pressure cooker is raised.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 31.
Assertion: The sum of mole fractions of all components of a solution is unity.
Reason: Mole fraction is independent of temperature.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 32.
Assertion: Sodium chloride is used to clear snow on the roads.
Reason: Sodium chloride depresses the freezing point of water.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

---

Question 33.
Assertion: Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.1 M NaCl solution.
Reason: Osmotic pressure is not a colligative property.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

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Question 34.
Assertion: Elevation in boiling point for two isotonic solutions may not be same.
Reason: Boiling point depends upon the concentration of the solute.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

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Question 35.
Assertion: Iodine is more soluble in CCl₄ than in water.
Reason: Non-polar solutes are more soluble in non-polar solvents.

Answer

Answer: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

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Question 36.
Assertion: Camphor is usually used in molecular mass determination.
Reason: Camphor has low cryoscopic constant and therefore, causes greater depression in freezing point.

Answer

Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is wrong statement.

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