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Dialogue Writing MCQ Questions with Answers Class 10 English

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Grammar Dialogue Writing with Answers

I. Choose the most appropriate option to complete the sentences given below.

Julia : Hello Kevin, 1……….. you for ages. How are you?
Kevin : I’m fine. How about you? 2………….
Julia : Yes, I’m very well thanks. 3…………somewhere? Or 4………… somebody off a train?
Kevin : No, Actually 5…………….
Julia : That’s great. It means 6……….
Kevin : Yes, you are right.

1. (A) I see you every day
(B) I will always see you
(C) I had seen you
(D) I haven’t seen

2. (A) You look nice.
(B) You look pretty.
(C) You look very well.
(D) You look neat.

3. (A) Whereareyou
(B) Are you going
(C) is you going
(D) I-low are you?

4. (A) is you seeing
(B) are you seeing
(C) have you seeing
(D) had you seeing

5. (A) I’m going nowhere
(B) I’m happy.
(C) I’m happy to see you
(D) I’m going to Hyderabad to join my new job.

6. (A) that’s why you are here
(B) you are busy.
(C) you will shift to Hyderabad very soon.
(D) you will leave the college now.
Answer:
1. (D) I haven’t seen
2. (C) You look very well.
3. (B) Are you going
4. (B) are you seeing
5. (D) I’m going to Hyderabad to join my new job.
6. (C) you will shift to Hyderabad very soon.

Explanation:
1. In options (A), (B) and (C), the pronoun ‘you’ is used and again at the end of the blank, ‘you’ is used in the question, which makes the sentence incorrect.
2. ‘Nice’ is related to behaviour. ‘Pretty’ and ‘neat’ are just related to beauty and cleanliness. ‘Well’ is used to. define overall health and life situations.
3. Options (A) and (D) do not give any meaning with the sentences that follow Option (B) uses ‘is’ with ‘you’ which is not the correct usage. Only ‘are’ is used with ‘You’ whether in singular or in plural.
4. As the work is still in continuation, Present continuous tense is used. Only ‘are’ is used with ‘You’ whether in singular or in plural.
5. If someone is not going anywhere or receiving anyone1 so there is no point in coming to Kaiiway Station Expressing happiness is response to where are you going does not make sense.
6. As Kevin is getting new job in Hyderabad, so, shifting to Hyderabad is the most obvious choice.

Dialogue Writing MCQ Questions with Answers Class 10 English

II. Choose the most appropriate options to complete the dialogue given below. Write the correct answer in the answer sheet against the correct blank number.

Mohit : Nice to see you in the City again. How come you are here?
Ketan : 1………………..
Mohit : Are you still with the Tata group?
Ketan : Yes, in fact 2………………..
Mohit : That’s great Congratulations. Your Promotion and calls for a Party.
Ketan : Indeed it does. 3…………….?
Mohit : We would love to but we have to go for a Wedding tonight.
Ketan : Flow about Saturday evening?
Mohit : 4……………
Ketan : Good. Then you should come to my residence at around 7:30 pm.
Mohit : By the way. Where do you live?
Ketan : 5………… You must bring Your Family too.
1. (A) I have been there.
(B) I have come there.
(C) I have been posted here.
(D) I have send here.

2. (A) I have a promotion.
(B) I received a promotion.
(C) I received a promotion.
(D) I have been posted here on a Promotion.

3. (A) How would you like?
(B) When would you like?
(C) Today itself.
(D) Would you like to have it Tonight?

4. (A) Can be
(B) Ok
(C) That would quite suit us.
(D) Fine

5. (A) Here itself
(B) In Delhi
(C) In this city itself
(D) Oh, Sorry! I forgot to tell you. It is Flat 16,1 Floor, Vishnu Enclave.

6. (A) once again
(B) No problem
(C) I will try to be there
(D) will be there by 7:30 P M.
Answer:
1. (C) I have been posted here.
2. (D) I have been posted here on a Promotion.
3. (D) Would you like to have it Tonight?
4. (C) That would quite suit us.
5. (D) Oh, Sorry! I forgot to tell you. It is Flat 16, Second Floor, Vishnu Enclave.
6. (D) We will be there by 7:30 P.M.

Explanation:
1. When someone asks the reason for being present somewhere, responses like Options (A) and (B) about some other place is not correct. Option (D) does not make any sense as response to the question.
2. Simple response about Promotion without confirming to the question are incomplete responses. Option (D) gives the reason for being with Tata as well as reason for being there.
3. When someone Congratulates and looks forward to a Party, the correct response is to invite him or her for the Party as soon as it suits both.
4. As a response to a date for party, one must confirm or reject it in courtesy. Mere responses like ‘Ok’ and ‘Fine’ are not courteous.
5. One must know the address where the party is going to be hosted. So, complete address needs to be shared with the Invitees.
6. It is always better to confirm the attendance along with the Time at the Time of Parting.

Dialogue Writing MCQ Questions with Answers Class 10 English

III. Choose the most appropriate options to complete the dialogue given below. Write the correct answer in the answer sheet against the correct blank number.

David : Hello.
Meenu : HelIo
David : Is it 9897XXXXXX?
Meenu : Yes. 1……….
David : To Meenu, I am her friend David.
Meenu : David ! Its Meenu. 2………..?
David : I m calling from Indira Gandhi International Airport. I’m here for a visit.
Meenu : That’s great. 3…………?
David : I wanted to give you a surprise.
Meenu : When did you arrive? 4………….?
David : I just got here and I’m alone.
Meenu : 5. __________________ for Saket or Shall I send My Driver?
David : I think I’ll take a Cab as your Driver 6……………

1. (A)Who are you?
(B) Who’s this?
(C)Who is speaking?
(D) Who do you want to speak to?

2. (A)Where you have been?
(B) Where are you?
(C)Where are you calling from?
(D) Are you there?

3.(A)You can inform me.
(B) You could inform me.
(C)Why didn’t you let me know you were coming?
(D) Why didn’t you tell me?

4. (A)Who is with you?
(B) Who has come with you?
(C)No one has come with you.
(D) Is someone else accoútpanying you?

5. (A)In that case, ok.
(B) No problem
(D) nook a Cab
(C)In that case, you can you take a Cab

6. (A)may take time to reach the Airport
(B) may forget
(C)will be late
(D) doesn’t know the directions.
Answer:
1. (D) Who do you want to speak to?
2. (C) Where are you calling from?
3. (C) Why didn’t you let me know you were coming?
4. (D) Is someone else accompanying you?
5. (C) In that case, can you take a Cab
6. (A) may take time to reach the Airport.

Explanation:
I. While receiving a call, it is appropriate to know whom the Caller wants to talk to.
2. It does not seem that the speakers have been out of touch for long, so option (A) does not fit. It is impolite j to ask as mentioned in option (B). As there has no gap between the speaking or no interruption seems to 1 arise, so option (D) cannot be used.
3. As David has come to the town where Meenu resides, she is bound to complain about why she was not informed earlier so that she could have gone and received him at the Airport.
4. It is polite to enquire who else is coming with the speaker to make suitable arrangements for the Visit.
5. As Meenu cannot go and pick him up now because she was not aware of his arrival, the best option is to guide him how to reach her residence which has been done in option (C).
6. As David is already there, sending Driver will make him wait for extra time.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery with Answers

I. The entire staff was roused and maids rushed in and out bringing his day bed, his night bed, favourite cushions, toys and rubber rings, breakfast bowl, lunch bowl, supper bowl. Realising that my car would never hold all the stuff, I started to drive away. As moved off, Mrs. Pumphrey, with a despairing cry, threw an armful of the little coats through the window. I looked in the mirror before I turned the corner of the drive; everybody was in tears. Out on the road, I glanced down at the pathetic little animal gasping on the seat by my side. patted the head and Tricky made a brave effort to wag his tail. “Poor old lad,” I said. “You haven’t a kick in you but I think know a cure for you.”

Question 1.

What might be the atmosphere of the household in the above extract signify?

(A) Mrs. Pumphrey’s status in society reflected in Tricky’s lifestyle.
(B) The staff’s love for Tricky, which matched that of Mrs. Pumphrey
(C) The grand life of comforts and luxuries that Tricky enjoyed.
(D) Mrs. Pumphrey’s indulgence and anxiety acted upon by the staff.
Answer:
(D) Mrs. Pumphrey’s indulgence and anxiety acted upon by the staff.

Explanation:
The staff was highly influenced by the behaviour and reactions of Mrs. Pumphrey.

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

Question 2.

Given below are emoticons reflecting various expressions and reactions. Choose the option that correctly describes the narrator’s mindset in the given extract.

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1 1
(A) Options (i) and (iii)
(B) Options (ii) and (iv)
(C) Options (iii) and (v)
(D) Options (ii) and-(v)
Answer:
(B) Options (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
The narrator is confused and undecided. These are represented by emoticons (ii) arid (iv).

Question 3.

Given below a re some well-known quotes shared by the staff to console Mrs. Pumphrey, after Tricky’s departure. Choose the option that correctly identifies the quote that IS NOT appropriate to the consolation

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1 3
(A) Option (i)
(B) Option (ii)
(C) Option (iii)
(D) Option (iv)
Answer:
(D) Option (iv)

Question 4.

As the extract indicates, Mrs. Pumphrey indulged Tricky and bought him many things. Choose the option that best describes the kinds of advertisement/s that seem likely to persuade Mrs. Pumphrey to buy something for T ricky.

(i) Statistics Appeal – Such advertisements use facts and data to convince consumers to buy products.
(ii) Scarcity Appeal – Such advertisements create a feeling of exclusivity and are often used to convince people to take advantage of a sale or limited period offer.
(iii) Personal Appeal – Such advertisements focus on evoking emotions to convince consumers and often relate to family or other inter-personal interactions.
(iv) Fear Appeal – Such advertisements focus on inspiring some kind of fear to convince consumers to take action in order to avoid certain negative or undesirable consequences.

(A) Options (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) Options (iii) and (iv)
(C) Options (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Option (ii) only
Answer:
(B) Options (iii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Mrs. Pumphrey is likely to purchase anything which she is afraid of or evoke emotions. She is 8 not going to be influenced by scarcity appeal or statistical data.

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

Question 5.

The narrator describes Tricky as a “pathetic little animal”. The use of the word ‘pathetic’ indicates that the narrator:

(A) Was very fond of Tricky.
(B) Thought Tricky was contemptible.
(C) Pitied Tricky’s condition.
(D) Believed Tricky’s health was deteriorating.
Answer:
(C) Pitied Tricky’s condition.

Explanation:
Pathetic is used to describe someone who is not in good condition and needs sympathy or pity.

II. He discovered the joys of being bowled over, tramped on and squashed every few minutes. He became an accepted member of the gang, an unlikely, silky little object among the shaggy crew, fighting like a tiger for his share at meal times and hunting rats in the old hen house at night. He had never had such a time in his life. All the while, Mrs. Pumphrey hovered anxiously in the background, ringing a dozen times a day for the latest bulletins.

Question 1.

Read the following statements, each of which describes the gist of the given extract.

Select the option that captures the essence of the extract correctly.
Statement (i) – It highlights the kind of comforts and luxuries that Tricky was used to at Home.
Statement (ii) – It brings out a contrast between Tricky and Mrs. Pumphrey’s state of being.
Statement (iii) – It reflects that Tricky was happier at the surgery and loved being with other dogs.
Statement (iv) – It shows Tricky’s journey with his peers at the surgery and documents of his recovery.

(A) Statements (i) and (ii)
(B) Statements (iii) and (iv)
(C) Statements (i) and (iii)
(D) Statements (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) Statements (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Statement (i) is not correct as Tricky found having meal at Doctor’s place more satisfying than 1 at Home. Statement (iii) is not correct as Tricky enjoyed his company more than others initially. So, only I Statements (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Question 2.

What does the reference to Tricky as a “silky little object” signify?

(A) Tricky was a very small and rather pampered dog.
(B) Tricky was comfortably attired in fine silks and warm coats.
(C) Unlike the other dogs, Tricky had lived, in the lap of luxury with care and grooming.
(D) The Narrator’s mockery of Tricky’s life and treatment with Mrs. Pumphrey.
Answer:
(C) Unlike the other dogs, Tricky had lived, in the lap of luxury with care and grooming.

Explanation:
Silly here refers to his well grooming and little refers to his delicateness living a life of luxury.

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

Question 2.

Why does the narrator describe being “tramped on and squashed” as joys?

(A) To suggest the irony about the strange ways of dogs.
(B) To mention the simple pleasures of canine life.
(C) To compare it to Tricky’s earlier play-time at the house.
(D) To direct attention towards Tricky’s successful recovery.
Answer:
(B) To mention the simple pleasures of canine life.

Explanation:
Although these are treated as pathetic in human life, but in canine behaviour, these are normal routines or pleasures that need to be enjoyed.

Question 4.

“All the while, Mrs. Pumphrey hovered anxiously in the background”. Given below are different types of Pet Parenting styles described in Country Living, (an e-magazine).

Choose the option that best reflects the kind of Pet owner Mrs. Pumphrey was.

(i) Traffic Light Pet owners have a healthy balance of rules and freedom and give clear and consistent signals for ‘yes’ and ‘no’.
(ii) Entranced Pet owners have the best intentions, but as soon as their pet locks eyes with them and gives their command, they are at their pet’s back and call.
(iii) The Goose Pet owners go all-out in protecting their pet. They often limit their time away from their pet, especially puppies.
(iv) The Baggage Handler Pet owners love being close to their pets and going on adventures together. They are always mindful of the pet’s comfort and security.
Answer:

(A) Option (i)
(B) Option (ii)
(C) Option (iii)
(D) Option (iv)
Answer:
(B) Option (ii)

Explanation:
Mrs. Pumphrey wanted the best for her pet even though it appears to be strict, but as soon as she looks at her pet, she forgets all about it and becomes lenient.

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

Question 5.

Pick the option that reveals Tricky’s characteristics in the context of ‘fighting like a tiger for his share at meal times and hunting rats in the old hen house at night.’

(1) selfish
(2) happy
(3) greedy
(4) confident
(5) sturdy
(6) cruel

(A) 2, 4 and 5
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 5
(D) 3, 4 and 6
Answer:
(A) 2, 4 and 5

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1

When was States Reorganisation Commission formed?

(A) In 1951
(B) In 1963
(C) In 1997
(D) In 1953
Answer:
(D) In 1953

Explanation:
State Reorganization Commission was formed in 1953 by the Central Government to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries on the basis of language, culture, ethnicity, or geography.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 2.

How many Union Territories are there in the Indian Federation?

(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 3
Answer:
(B) 9

Explanation:
India has been divided into Union Territories in order to maintain effective administration, maintain law and order, provide citizens their necessities and for overall development.

Question 3.

Which of the following falls under the Concurrent List?

(A) Trade
(B) Adoption
(C) Agriculture
(D) Foreign affairs
Answer:
(B) Adoption

Explanation:
Adoption falls into Concurrent list because the Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States.

Question 4.

What status has been given to Hindi by the Constitution of India?

(A) Regional language
(B) Official language
(C) National language
(D) Community language
Answer:
(B) Official language

Explanation:
Article 343(1) of the Constitution provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the Official Language of the Union. Article 343(2) also provided for continuing the use of English in official work of the Union for a period of 15 years (i.e. up to 25 January 1965) from the date of commencement of the Constitution.

Question 5.

Who is the head of urban local government?

(A) Sarpanch
(B) Ward Commissioner
(C) Mukhiya
(D) Mayor

Explanation:
Mayors take on a dual role, serving not only as chief executive officer of the municipal administration but also as agents of the Central Government charged with such functions as maintaining public order, security and health.

Question 6.

In which year, a major step was taken towards decentralisation?

(A) In 1994
(B) In 1989
(C) In 1992
(D) In 1997
Answer:
(C) In 1992

Explanation:
The major steps taken towards decentralization after 1992 included :
(i) It was made constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
(ii) Seats were reserved for Scheduled Castes jg (SCS) Scheduled Tribes (STs) and OBCs.
(iii) Women were given one-third representation.

Question 7.

Study the given cartoon and answer the following:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism 1

Which one of the following leaders is shown in this cartoon?

(A) Rajiv Gandhi
(B) I. K. Gujral
(C) H. D. Deve Gowda
(D) A. B. Vajpayee
Answer:
(D) A. B. Vajpayee

Explanation:
A. B. Vajpayee served three terms as the prime minister of India. He was one of the co-founders and a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 8.

Study the picture and answer the following:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism 2

Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(A) The State representatives are begging before the Central Government.
(B) The Central Government is undermining the spirit of federalism.
(C) A lady is distributing food to the beggars.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) The Central Government is undermining the spirit of federalism.

Explanation:
The Central Government often used to misuse the Constitution to dismiss the State government that were controlled by rival parties. This undermined the spirit of federalism.

Question 9.

Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It includes subjects of National importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.

(A) State List
(B) Concurrent List
(C) Union List
(D) Enrolment List
Answer:
(C) Union List

Explanation:
Union List is a list of subjects of national importance. All subjects listed in the Union List are financed by the Government of India wholly or in part. The Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Union List.

Question 10.

Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: It includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list.

(A) Concurrent List
(B) Union List
(C) State List
(D) Government List
Answer:
(A) Concurrent List

Explanation:
The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States. The aim of the concurrent list is to ensure uniformity across the country where independently both Centre and State can legislate.

Question 11.

Which of the following pair is incorrect?

(A) State government – State List
(B) Central government – Union List
(C) Central and State – Concurrent List government List
(D) Local government – Residuary powers
Answer:
(D) Local government – Residuary powers

Explanation:
The Local governments are not empowered to legislate on any matter. They are vested with limited powers. The Constitution of India has vested the ‘residuary powers’ with the Centre. But, the final authority to decide whether a matter falls under the list of residuary powers or not, rests with the Supreme Court because it is the judiciary which decides whether any matter falls under residuary list or not.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 12.

Major steps towards decentralization taken in 1992 were:

(A) To hold regular elections of local government bodies.
(B) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for men.
(C) State Election Commission has been created in each state.
(D) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
Answer:
(B) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for men.

Explanation:
According to the 73rd amendment act, l/3rd seats are reserved for women apart from the total number of seats in order to uplift and empower them.

Question 13.

Column A Column B
(i) Union of India (A) Prime Minister
(ii) State (B) Sarpanch
(iii) Municipal Corpo-ration (C) Governor
(iv) Gram Panchayat (D) Mayor

(A) (i)-(B), (ii)-(A),(iii)-(D),(iv)-(D)
(B) (i)-(A),(ii)-(C), (iii)-(D),(iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(D),(ii)-(A),(iii)-(C),(iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(D),(ii)-(C),(iii)-(A),(iv)-(B)
Answer:
(B) (i)-(A),(ii)-(C), (iii)-(D),(iv)-(D)

Explanation:
The power at each stage has been decentralized starting from the Union of India to the Gram Panchayat with each having its own head. This involved range of powers and responsibilities at each step makes them accountable to the people for each and every policy made and action taken.

Question 14.

Column A Column B
(i) Union List (A) Education
(ii) State List (B) Computer Software
(iii) Concurrent List (C) Foreign Affairs
(iv) Residuary Sub-jects (D) Agriculture

(A) (i)–(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(B) (i) -(A), (ii) -(B), (iii) -(C), (iv)-(D)
(C) (i)-(D), (ii) -(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)
(D) (i)-(B), (ii) -(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)
Answer:
(A) (i)–(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Foreign Affairs is included in Union List because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.
(ii) Agriculture is included in State list as states are entirely competent to enact laws on agriculture.
(iii) Education is included in Concurrent List as the Indian constitution has provisions to ensure that the state provides education to all its citizens. Education being a concurrent list subject enables the central government to legislate it in the manner suited to it.
(iv) Computer Software is included in the Residuary Subjects as it was not present at the time when the Constitution was being written. Union Government has the powers to make laws regarding this subject.

Assertuion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is False
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): When power is taken away from Central and State government and given to local government, it is called decentralization.
Reason (R): The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The people belonging to local areas have better knowledge of problems, so can solve easily and the best thing about decentralisation is that people participate directly in decision making.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 2.

Assertion (A) : Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Reason (R): Usually, a federation has one level of government.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is False

Explanation:
Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): India has a federal system.
Reason (R): Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to central government.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India has a federal government. There is a central government for the entire country and state governments for different regions. The reason is also true but does not justify the statement.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Reason (R): It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is False

Explanation:
Hindi is the identified as official language of India. However, it is spoken by only 40 per cent of IndiAnswer:Thus, to safeguard the rights and interest of other linguistic communities, 21 other languages were recognized as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution of India.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain have ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason (R): A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects.
Reason (R): The subjects included those that came after constitution was made and thus could not be classified.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason (R): Mayor is the head of municipalities.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
All the Panchayat Samitis or mandals in a district together constitute the ZilaParishad. Its chairperson is the head of the Zilla Parishad. Whereas, municipalities are set up in towns and Mayor is the head of the city municipalities.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason (R): It made democracy stumble.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is False

Explanation:
The third tier of government is done through decentralisation. It helped in making democracy stronger by involving itself to the grass root level.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of IndiAnswer:Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was stopped in 1965. However, many non- Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of English should continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elites. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 1.

What was the first and major test for democratic politics in our country?

(A) The creation of linguistic states
(B) The creatiomof the language policy
(C) The creation of new federal states
(D) The creation of new federal territories
Answer:
(A) The creation of linguistic states

Explanation:
The creation of Linguistic States was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country. In 1947, the boundaries of several old States were changed in order to create new States so that people who spoke the same language lived in the same State.

Question 2.

A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions has to opt for which language?

(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Both Hindi and English
(D) Any of the 21 languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.
Answer:
(D) Any of the 21 languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.

Explanation:
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. There were many safeguards to protect other languages.
A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 3.

Which non- Hindi speaking State demanded that the use of English should continue after 1965?

(A) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(C) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
In Tamil Nadu, the movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes.

Question 4.

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 21 languages
(B) 20 languages
(C) 25 languages
(D) 22 languages
Answer:
(D) 22 languages

II. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a Central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other. In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary governments. Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the Central Government. The Central Government can pass on orders to the Provincial or the Local government. But in a federal system, the Central Government cannot order the State Government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central Government. Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Usually, a federation has………….. levels of government.

(A) three
(B) four
(C) two
(D) five
Answer:
(C) two

Question 2.

Which of the following types of government is responsible for the whole country?

(A) State government
(B) Central government
(C) Local government
(D) Community government
Answer:
(B) Central government

Explanation:
A Central Government is the government that is a controlling power over a unitary state. Essentially, the Central government has the power to make laws for the whole country, in contrast with local governments.

Question 3.

Central and State governments are separately answerable to the .

(A) people
(B) none
(C) each other
(D) president
Answer:
(A) people

Explanation:
The Central government cannot order the State government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which ‘ it is not answerable to the Central government. Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 4.

Under which of the following systems, the Central government can pass on orders to the provincial government?

(A) Federal system
(B) Monarchy
(C) Unitary system
(D) Dictatorship
Answer:
(C) Unitary system

Explanation:
In a Unitary system, there is no list of distribution of powers in the constitution. All powers belong to the Central Government.

III. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
What about subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists? Or subjects like computer software that came up after the constitution was made? According to our Constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects. We noted above that most federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units. Thus, all states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers. Some states enjoy a special status. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this state without the approval of the State Assembly. Indians who are not permanent residents of this State cannot buy land or house here. Similar special provisions exist for some other states of India as well.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Which of the following subjects comes under ‘Residuary’ subjects?

(A) Education
(B) Trade
(C) Banking
(D) Computer software
Answer:
(D) Computer software

Explanation:
Union Government has the powers to make laws on Residuary Subjects. Subjects like Computer came into being after the constitution was created, hence it was included in the Residuary list.

Question 2.

Which of the following states has its own Constitution?

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(B) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation:
The Constitution of India granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian states, and it was the only state in India to have a separate constitution.

Question 3.

Who has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects?

(A) Central government
(B) State government
(C) Community government
(D) Local government
Answer:
(A) Central government

Explanation:
The Central Government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects and the parliament has the power to amend laws on the subjects mentioned in it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 4.

Indians who are not permanent residents of………….. cannot buy land or house here.

(A) Kerala
(B) Assam
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Bihar
Answer:
(C) Jammu & Kashmir

Explanation:
Non-Resident Indians could not buy property in Jammu and Kashmir because of the special status given to the state.

IV. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follows:
How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2001. This census recorded more than 1500 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani, Bhili and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 114 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore, called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

How many languages are spoken in India?

(A) More than 1200
(B) More than 1100
(C) More than 1400
(D) More than 1300
Answer:
(D) More than 1300

Explanation:
India is a land of vast cultural and linguistic diversity. India has about linguistic diversity as that of a continent leading to linguistic diversity. Each State has its own language.

Question 2.

Bhojpuri, Magadhi,…………… , Rajasthani and many others were grouped under ‘Hindi’.

(A) Bundelkhandi
(B) Urdu
(C) Kashmiri
(D) Bengali
Answer:
(A) Bundelkhandi

Explanation:
Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Rajasthani and many other were grouped under Hindi as they are all considered to be the dialect of the same language of which Hindi is now the standard form.

Question 3.

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 22
Answer:
(D) 22

Explanation:
Scheduled languages are one that is included in the 8th schedule of the constitution of India. States have the freedom to use whatever language they decide to use for official purposes. English is not a scheduled language.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

Question 4.

In terms of …………… , India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.

(A) population
(B) languages
(C) forests
(D) religions
Answer:
(B) languages

Explanation:
While a number of people speak various languages, they remain geographically segregated. India is a diverse country in terms of languages is well known. The 2011 census lists 121 different mothertongues spoken by IndiAnswer:Fourteen of these languages have at least 10 million speakers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers

Question 1.

Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka?

(A) Christian and Tamil
(B) Buddhist and Hindu
(C) Sinhali and Tamil
(D) Sinhali and Christian
Answer:
(C) Sinhali and Tamil

Explanation:
Sri Lanka is few kilometres off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu. The major social groups are the Sinhalese and the Tamils.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Question 2.

Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.

(A) Central government, state government, local bodies
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary
(C) Among different social groups
(D) Among different pressure groups
Answer:
(B) Legislature, executive, judiciary

Explanation:
Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary, this is known as horizontal distribution of power because it allows these organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Question 3.

Which language is spoken by majority of Sri Lankans?

(A) Tamil
(B) Sinhala
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu
Answer:
(B) Sinhala

Question 4.

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing 1

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Concentration of power in few hands.
(B) Democracy is like a horse-cart.
(C) Putin and Bush are good friends.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Concentration of power in few hands.

Explanation:
In a democratic country, Elected representatives has a power in their hands and S they want to concentrate these powers.

Question 5.

When was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?

(A) In 1954
(B) In 1955
(C) In 1956
(D) In 1958
Answer:
(C) In 1956

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Question 6.

Study the following caricature and answer the question that follows :

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing 2

Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

(A) Problems of two party system
(B) A car with two steering
(C) Problems of a coalition government
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Problems of a coalition government

Explanation:
When two or more political parties form a government & if they both form an opinion to run the government, conflicts arises.

Question 7.

A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:

(A) Power Sharing
(B) Central Government
(C) Majoritarianism
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(C) Majoritarianism

Explanation:
It means that the majority community rules a country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.

Question 8.

A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:

(A) Power sharing among different social groups.
(B) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
(C) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(D) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.
Answer:
(C) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.

Question 9.

Which is a federal division of power?

(A) Governments at the provincial or regional level.
(B) Legislature, executive and judiciary
(C) Among different social groups
(D) Political parties, pressure groups and movements
Answer:
(A) Governments at the provincial or regional level.

Explanation:
General government at the provincial or regional level for the entire country is known as federal government.

Question 10.

Name one prudential reason for power sharing?

(A) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
(B) People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
(C) Citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system
(D) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
Answer:
(D) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups

Explanation:
Prudential reasons bring out better outcomes for power sharing.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Question 11.

Column A Column B
(i) Power shared among different organs of govern-ment (A) 18 per cent
(ii) Tamil speakers (B) 80 per cent
(iii) Dutch speakers (C) Coalition government, Federal govern-ment
(iv) Power shared by two or more political parties (D) Separation of powers
(v) French speakers (E) 20 per cent

(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)
(B) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(E), (v)-(B)
(C) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(A), (v)-(D)
(D) (i)-(E), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(D), (v)-(C)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(C), (v)-(B)

Explanation:
(i) Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary and that separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
(ii) Sri Lanka has 74% Sinhala- speakers and 18% Tamil-speakers.
(iii) In Brussels, 80% French speakers and 20% Dutch speakers.
(iv) When two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power.

Question 12.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.
(B) It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
(C) It has a population of a little over one crore.
(D) The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex.
Answer:
(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.

Explanation:
Belgium is a smaller than Haryana. In Europe it shares borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 13.

Find the incorrect option from the following:

(A) Power is shared among different organs of government.
(B) Such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(C) We call this as vertical distribution of powers.
(D) Because it allows different organs of government placed at same level to exercise different powers.
Answer:
(C) We call this as vertical distribution of powers.

Explanation:
When power is shared among different organs at the same level to exercise different powers, it is known as horizontal distribution of power.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Pbwer sharing is good for democracy.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
Reason (R): Power may also share among different social groups.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Horizontal distribution of power allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Reason (R): Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish dominance of Tamil community.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Sinhala was recognised as only official language of Sri Lanka so that the government of Sri Lanka establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a democracy.
Reason (R): If the dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
In a democratic country, due respect is given to diverse groups that exist in the society. Thus, political power should be distributed among citizens.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.

The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time.

 The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result, thousands of people of both the communities were killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

The process of dominance over the government by virtue of majority is seen in which country?

(A) Bangladesh
(B) Belgium
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) The Netherlands
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Question 2.

Which is the official language of Sri Lanka?

(A) Sinhala and Tamil
(B) Sinhala
(C) Tamil
(D)None of these
Ans.
(B) Sinhala

Explanation:
Tamil speakers were minor in Srilanka. So, in 1956 an act was passed that recognises Sinhala as the official language.

Question 3.

What is the prudential reason behind Power Sharing?

(A) It gives absolute power to the citizens.
(B) It gives absolute power to the government.
(C) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(D) It ensures foreign investments.
Answer:
(C) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Question 4.

The ratio of Sinhala speaking and Tamil speaking in Sri Lanka is :

(A) 20:80
(B) 50:50
(C) 70:30
(D) 80:20
Answer:
(D) 80:20

Explanation:
The prudential reasons for power sharing have the need to stabilise political order that reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of Haryana. The ETHNIC composition of this small country is very complex. Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French.

Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking. The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later. This led to tensions between the Dutch¬speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s. The tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. Brussels presented a special problem: the Dutchspeaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

Belgium shares its border with:

(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Luxembourg
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.

Capital of Belgium:

(A) Netherlands
(B) Brussels
(C) Wallonia
(D) Europe
Answer:
(B) Brussels

Question 3.

Which language speaks on majority level in the country? ‘

(A) Dutch
(B) German
(C) French
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Dutch

Question 4.

Area of Belgium is:

(A) equals to Haryana
(B) greater than Haryana
(C) smaller than Haryana
(D) equals to Europe
Answer:
(C) smaller than Haryana

Explanation:
Belgium is the small Europeon country whose area is smaller than Indian state, Haryana.

III. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others.

This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances. Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different names in different countries. In India, we call them State Governments. This system is not followed in all countries. There are many countries where there are no provincial or state governments. But in those countries like ours, where there are different levels of government, the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is what they did in Belgium, but was refused in Sri Lanka.

This is called federal division of power. The same principle can be extended to levels of government lower than the State government, such as the municipality and panchayat. Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration. This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give minority communities a fair share in power.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

Question 1.

In horizontal distribution, power is shared among:

(A) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
(B) Union government, State government and Local government
(C) Majority and minority community
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Question 2.

Community government solves issues related to:

(A) Culture
(B) Education
(C) Language
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
A government that handle issues related to their particular community is called community government. Hence, the given options are the part communal issues.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Question 3.

Federal System was refused by:

(A) India
(B) Belgium
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) USA
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

Question 4.

Who can check the functioning of executives?

(A) Legislature
(B) Judiciary
(C) State Government
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(B) Judiciary

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

Access Class 11 Maths NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise, contains solutions for all Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise Class 11 questions.

Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Class 11 NCERT Solutions Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 2

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 5
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 6

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 7
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 8
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 9
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 10

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 12
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 13
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 14

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 15
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 16
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 17
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 18

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 5 Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations Miscellaneous Exercise 19

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English

Fog NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9

Fog NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Fog Thinking about the Poem

Question 1.
What does Sandburg think the fog is like?
Answer:
Sandburg thinks that fog is like a cat.

Question 2.
How does the fog come?
Answer:
The fog comes quietly on the cat’s feet.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog

Question 3.
What does ‘it’ in the third line refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ in the third line refers to ‘fog’.

Question 4.
Does the poet actually say that the fog is like a cat? Find three things that tell us that the fog is like a ‘cat’.
Answer:
The poet actually says that the fog is like a cat. He compares fog with the cat for ‘coming quietly’ and ‘silent haunches’ and ‘then moves on’.

Fog Extra Questions and Answers

Fog Reference-to-Context Questions

Read the stanza given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question 1.
The fog comes on little cat feet.

(a) The poet thinks that the fog is like a
Answer:
cat

(b) ‘Cat’s feet’ refers to the softness of
Answer:
movement

(c) Fog is a symbol of
Answer:
sorrow.

(d) Give the meaning of the phrase ‘on little cat feet’ from the extract.
Answer:
silently/quickly

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog

Question 2.
It sits looking
over harbour and city
on silent haunches
and then moves on.

(a) The fog spreads over the and city on silent haunches like a cat.
Answer:
harbour

(b) The fog ………. after some time just as a cat does.
Answer:
disappears

(c) The poetic device in the extract is personification.
Answer:
True

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog

(d) Find the same meaning of ‘port’ in the extract.
Answer:
harbour

Fog Long Answer Question

Question 1.
‘Nothing lasts forever’. How far does the poem ‘Fog’ depict this idiom?
Answer:
The fog in the poem makes a silent, but all-pervasive entry on the scene. It gives no indication of its temporary nature, at this stage. Its silent arrival, as if on cat feet, does not indicate its onward spread. It seems to be surrounding the entire countryside like a child sitting on its haunches, indicating a mysterious aura without exposing its next move.

The reader anticipates some dramatic outcome of this all-pervasive presence from the harbour, right down to the city. In the final outcome, the fog makes a silent exit, as secretively as its arrival. The entire drama seems to suggest that even in the most engulfing of circumstances, is but temporary in nature.

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