Author name: Raju

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Paper 7

These Sample Papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Paper 7

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
• Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 4 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
• Use of calculator is not permitted.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
Find the smallest number which is divisible by 85 and 119.

Question 2.
Write a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are 3 and – 2 respectively

Question 3.
Is x = – 4 a solution of the equation 2x² + 5x – 12 = 0 ?

Question 4.
In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle from an external point P. CD is another tangent touching the circle at Q. If PA = 12 cm, QC = QD = 3 cm, then find PC + PD.

Question 5.
Find the distance between (a, b) and (- a, – b).

Question 6.
If tan θ = cot (30° + θ), find the value of θ.

SECTION-B

Question 7.
Show that any positive odd integer is of the form 4m + 1 or 4m + 3, where m is some integer.

Question 8.
What is the quotient and the remainder, when x² + 3x +1 divides 3x⁴ + 5x³ – 7x² + 2x + 2 ?

Question 9.
Find the 10th term from the end of the A.P. 8, 10, 12, …, 126.

Question 10.
In what ratio does the point P(2, – 5) divide the line segment joining A(- 3, 5) and B(4, – 9) ?

Question 11.
A bag contains 8 green balls, 5 red balls and 7 white balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability of getting :
(i) neither a green ball nor a red ball.
(ii) a white ball or a green ball.

Question 12.
For the following distribution :

Find the sum of class marks of the median class and modal class.

SECTION-C

Question 13.
On a morning walk, three boys step off together and their steps measure 45 cm, 40 cm and 42 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?

OR

Use Euclid’s division lemma to show that the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.

Question 14.
Find the value of k for which 2x² – (k – 2)x + 1 = 0 has equal roots.

Question 15.
For which values of a and b, will the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many solutions ?
x + 2y = 1; (a – b)x + (a + b)y = a + b – 2

Question 16.
A circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in which ∠B = 90°. If AD = 23 cm, AB = 29 cm and DS = 5 cm, find the radius (r) of the circle.

Question 17.
The diagonals of a trapezium ABCD, with AB || DC, intersect each other at the point O. If AB = 2 CD, find the ratio of the area of ∆AOB to the area of ∆COD.

Question 18.
If A(4, – 8), B(3, 6) and C(5, – 4) are the vertices of a ∆ABC, D is the mid-point of BC and P is a point on AD joined such that \(\\ \frac { AP }{ PD } \) = 2, find the coordinates of P.

OR

Find the area of a rhombus if its vertices, taken in order, are (3, 0), (4, 5), (- 1, 4) and (- 2, – 1).

Question 19.
Without using the trigonometric tables, evaluate the following :
\(\frac { 11 }{ 7 } \frac { \sin { { 70 }^{ O } } }{ cos{ 20 }^{ O } } -\frac { 4 }{ 7 } \frac { cos{ 53 }^{ O }cosec{ 37 }^{ O } }{ { tan15 }^{ O }tan{ 35 }^{ O }tan{ 55 }^{ O }tan{ 75 }^{ O } } \)

OR

If A, B, C are interior angles of a ∆ABC, then show that :
\(cos\left( \frac { B+C }{ 2 } \right) =sin\frac { A }{ 2 } \)

Question 20.
ABCD is a rectangle such that AB = 10 cm and AD = 7 cm. A semi-circle is drawn with AD as diameter such that the rectangle and semi-circle don’t overlap. Find the perimeter of this figure. (Use π = 22/7)

Question 21.
A cone, a cylinder and a hemisphere are of equal base and have the same height. What is the ratio of their volumes ?

OR

The radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone 40 cm high are 20 cm and 11 cm. Determine its total surface area and volume. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 22.
Two different dice are rolled together. Find the probability of getting :
(i) the sum of numbers on two dice to be 5.
(ii) even numbers on both dice.

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Determine, graphically, the vertices of the triangle formed by the lines y = x, 3y = x and x + y = 8.

Question 24.
If the pth term of an A.R is 1/q and qth term is 1/p, prove that the sum of first pq terms of the A.P is \(\left( \frac { pq+1 }{ 2 } \right) \)

Question 25.
Let ABC be a right triangle in which AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and ∠B = 90°. BD is the perpendicular from B on AC. The circle through B, C, D is drawn. Construct the tangents from A to this circle.

OR

Construct a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45°, ∠A= 105°. Then, construct a triangle whose sides are 3/4 times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Question 26.
State and prove the Pythagoras theorem.

Question 27.
Draw “more than ogive” for the following distribution :

Question 28.
If tan θ + sec θ = l, then prove that:
\(sec\theta =\frac { { l }^{ 2 }+1 }{ 2l } \)

OR

If tan θ + sin θ = m and tan θ – sin θ = n, show that (m² – n²) = √mn.

Question 29.
From a balloon vertically above a straight road, the angles of depression of two cars at an instant are found to be 45° and 60°. If the cars are 100 m apart, find the height of the balloon.

OR

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from certain point is 30°. If the observer moves 10 metres towards the tower, the angle of elevation doubles. Find the height of the tower.

Question 30.
The radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 15 cm are 14 cm and r cm (r < 14 cm). If the volume of bucket is 5390 cm³, then find the value of r.

SOLUTIONS

SECTION-A

Solution 1:
Smallest number which is divisible by 85 and 119 = L.C.M. of numbers 85 and 119
∴85 = 17 x 5
119 = 17 x 7
∴ LCM (85, 119) = 17 x 5 x 7 = 595. Ans.

Solution 2:
Given, Sum of zeroes = 3
Product of zeroes = – 2
We know, quadratic polynomial is given as,
= k[x² – (Sum of zeroes)x + Product of zeroes]
= k[x² – 3x – 2] where k ≠ 0.

Solution 3:
Let p(x) = 2x² + 5x – 12 = 0
For x = – 4
p(x) = 2( – 4)² + 5( – 4) – 12
= 32 – 20 – 12 = 0
p(x = – 4) =0
x = – 4 is the solution of equation 2x² + 5x – 12 = 0.

Solution 4:
Given : PA = 12 cm
and QC = QD = 3 cm
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
∴PA = PB
QC =CA
and DQ = DB
Now,
PA + PB = 2 x 12
PC + AC + BD + PD = 24 [∵AC=QC,BD=QD]
PC + QC + QD + PD = 24
PC + 3 + 3 + PD = 24
PC + PD =24 – 6
PC + PD = 18 cm.

Solution 5:
Given points are A(a, b) and B(- a, – b)
By distance formula,
AB = \(\left| \sqrt { { ({ x }_{ 2 }-{ x }_{ 1 }) }^{ 2 }+{ ({ y }_{ 2 }-{ y }_{ 1 }) }^{ 2 } } \right| \)
= \(\left| \sqrt { { (-a-a) }^{ 2 }+{ (-b-b) }^{ 2 } } \right| \)
= \(\left| \sqrt { { 4a }^{ 2 }+{ 4b }^{ 2 } } \right| \)
AB = \(2\sqrt { { a }^{ 2 }+{ b }^{ 2 } } \) units

Solution 6:
Given
tan θ = cot (30° + θ)
cot (90° – θ) = cot (30° + θ)
90° – θ = 30° + θ
2θ = 90° – 30°
θ = \(\\ \frac { 60 }{ 2 } \) = 30°
θ = 30°.

SECTION-B

Solution 7:
Let the number be a = 4q + r where r = 0,1, 2, 3.
Case I: When r = 0
a = 4q
=> a = 2(2(q)
It is an even number.

Case II: When r = 1
a =4q + 1
It is an odd number.

Case III: When r = 2
a =4q + 2
=> a = 2(2q + 1)
It is an even number.

Case IV:
a = 4q + 3
=> a = 2(2q + 1) + 1
It is an odd number.
Hence, any positive odd number is the form of (4m + 1) or (4m + 3).

Solution 8:

Solution 9:
Given A.P. is 8, 10, 12, …, 126.
Here l = 126, d = 10 – 8 = 12 – 10 = 2
10th term from the end = l + (n – 1) (- d)
= 126 + (10 – 1) (- 2)
= 126 – 18 = 108
Hence 10th term from the end = 108.

Solution 10:
We have A( – 3, 5), B(4, – 9) and P(2, – 5).

By section formula,
\({ p }_{ x }=\frac { { m }_{ 1 }{ x }_{ 2 }+{ m }_{ 2 }{ x }_{ 1 } }{ { m }_{ 1 }+{ m }_{ 2 } } \)
\(2=\frac { { m }_{ 1 }(4)+{ m }_{ 2 }(-3) }{ { m }_{ 1 }+{ m }_{ 2 } } \)
2m₁ + 2m₂ = 4m₁ – 3m₂
2m₂ + 3m₂ = 4m₁ – 2m₁
5m₂ = 2m₁
\(\frac { { m }_{ 1 } }{ { m }_{ 2 } } =\frac { 5 }{ 2 } \)
∴ m₁ : m₂ = 5 : 2
So, point P divides line segment AB in the ratio 5 : 2.

Solution 11:
We have, Green balls = 8, Red balls = 5, White balls = 7
Total balls in the bag = 8 + 5 + 7 = 20
(i) Number of balls which are neither a green ball nor a red ball
= No. of white balls = 7
Probability of neither a green ball nor a red ball = \(\frac { No.\quad of\quad white\quad balls }{ total\quad balls } =\frac { 7 }{ 20 } \)
(ii) A white ball or a green ball = 7 + 8 = 15
Probability of a white ball or a green ball nor a red ball = \(\frac { white+green\quad balls }{ total\quad balls } =\frac { 15 }{ 20 } =\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \)

Solution 12:

Median = \(\\ \frac { N }{ 2 } \) th term = \(\\ \frac { 76 }{ 2 } \) = 38th term
Frequency just above 38 is 67 corresponding to class 15 – 20.
Median class = 15 – 20
Class mark = \(\\ \frac { 15+20 }{ 2 } \) = 17.5
30 is the highest frequency corresponding to class 15 – 20.
∴ Modal class = 15 – 20
∴ Class mark = \(\\ \frac { 15+20 }{ 2 } \) = 17.5
Sum of class marks of median class and modal class = 17.5 + 17.5 = 35.

SECTION-C

Solution 13:
Given, three boys step off together and their steps measure 45 cm, 40 cm and 42 cm.
Minimum distance each should walk in complete steps = L.C.M. of the numbers 45, 40 and 42
∵ 45 = 3 x 3 x 5
40 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 5
42 = 2 x 3 x 7
L.C.M. = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 7 = 2520
Hence, minimum distance each should walk = 2520 cm = 25.20 m. Ans.

OR

Let the number be a = 3q + r where r = 0,1, 2.
Case I: When r = 0
a = 3q
a² – 9q² = 3(3q²)
a² = 3m, where 3q² = m

Case II: When r = 1
a =3q + 1
a² = (3q + 1)² = 9q² + 6q + 1
= 3(3q² + 2q) + 1
a² = 3m + 1, where m = 3q² + 2q

Case III: When r = 2
a = 3q + 2
a² = (3q + 2)²
a² = 9q² + 12q + 4
a² = 9q² + 12q + 3 + 1
a² = 3(3q² + 4q + 1) + 1
a² = 3m + 1, where m – 3q² + 4q + 1
Hence, square of any integer is of the form 3m or 3m + 1. Hence Proved.

Solution 14:
Given equation is,
2x² – (k – 2)x + 1 = 0
On comparing the equation with ax² + bx + c = 0, we get
a = 2, b = – (k – 2) and c = 1
For equal roots
b² – 4ac = 0
{- (k – 2)}² – 4 x 2 x 1 = 0
(k- 2)² – 8 = 0
(k – 2)² = 8
Taking square root both sides
k – 2 = ± √8
k = 2 ± 2√2

Solution 15:
Given equations are
x + 2y – 1 =0
and (a – b)x + (a + b)y – (a + b – 2) = 0
On comparing the given equations with a₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0 and a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0, respectively, we get
a₁ = 1, b₁ = 2 and c₁ = – 1
a₂ = a – b, b₂ = a + b and c₂ = – (a + b – 2)
For infinitely many solutions

Solution 16:
In the figure,

OP = OQ = r cm
BP = BQ
[Tangents from point B]
∠B = ∠P = ∠Q = 90°
∴ OQBP is a square
OP = BQ = BP = OP = r cm
now,DR = DS = 5 cm [tangent from D]
∴ AR = AD – DR = 23 – 5 = 18 cm
=> AR = AQ = 18 cm [tangent from A]
now,AB = AQ + BQ
=> 29 = 18 + r
∴ r = 29 – 18 = 11 cm
Hence radius of circle = 11 cm

Solution 17:
Given : ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AB = 2CD.
In trapezium ABCD,

AB || CD
∠DCO = ∠OAB
(Alternative angles)
∠CDO = ∠OBA
(Alternative angles)
∆AOB ~ ∆COD
\(\frac { AO }{ CO } =\frac { BO }{ OD } =\frac { AB }{ CD } \)
\(\frac { ar(\triangle AOB) }{ ar(\triangle COD) } =\frac { { AB }^{ 2 } }{ { CD }^{ 2 } } =\frac { { (2CD) }^{ 2 } }{ { CD }^{ 2 } } =\frac { { 4CD }^{ 2 } }{ { CD }^{ 2 } } =\frac { 4 }{ 1 } \)
∴ ar (∆AOB) : ar (∆COD) = 4 : 1.

Solution 18:
Given : In ∆ABC,
\(\frac { AP }{ PD } =2\)
AP : PD = 2 : 1
Let the coordinates of P be (x, y).
Since, D is the mid-point of side BC of ∆ABC,
Therefore, AD is the median and point P is the centroid of ∆ABC.

Solution 19:

Solution 20:
Given : ABCD is a rectangle and AED is semi-circle of radius r , drawn on side AD
Clearly, \(r=\frac { AD }{ 2 } =\frac { 7 }{ 2 } cm\)

Perimeter of the figure = AB + BC + CD + arc DEA
= 10 + 7+ 10 + πr
[∵ AB = CD, AD = BC]
= \(27+\frac { 22 }{ 7 } \times \frac { 7 }{ 2 } \)
= 27 + 11
= 38 cm.

Solution 21:
Let the radius of hemisphere be r unit
Radius and height of the cylinder = r unit respectively,
and Radius and height of the cone = r unit respectively.
Volume of the cone : Volume of the cylinder : Volume of hemisphere

Solution 22:
When two dice are rolled together, possible outcomes are
(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6)
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6)
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6)
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)
(6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)
n(S) = 36
(i) Sample space for sum of numbers on two dice is 5 = (1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2), (4, 1).
∴n(E) = 4
P(E) = \(\frac { n(E) }{ n(S) } =\frac { 4 }{ 36 } =\frac { 1 }{ 9 } \)
(ii) Sample space for even number on both dice = (2, 2), (4, 4), (6, 6), (2, 4), (2, 6), (4, 2), (4, 6), (6, 2), (6, 4)
n(E) = 9
P(E) = \(\frac { n(E) }{ n(S) } =\frac { 9 }{ 36 } =\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)

SECTION-D

Solution 23:
Given equations are,
y = x…(i)
3y = x…(ii)
and x + y = 8…(iii)
On solving, we get
y = x

Solution 24:
Let the first term of A.P. be a and common difference be d.
Now, a_p = \(\\ \frac { 1 }{ q } \) (given)
=> a+(p-1)d = \(\\ \frac { 1 }{ q } \)…(i)
Also a_q = \(\\ \frac { 1 }{ p } \)
=> a + (q – 1)d = \(\\ \frac { 1 }{ p } \)…(ii)
On subtracting equation (i) from equation (ii), we get
(p – 1)d – (q – 1)d = \(\frac { 1 }{ q } -\frac { 1 }{ p } \)
(p – 1 – q + 1)d = \(\\ \frac { p-q }{ pq } \)

Solution 25:
Steps of construction :

(1) Draw BC = 8 cm and make a right angle at point B such that ∠XBC = 90°.
(2) Cut BA = 6 cm on BX and join AC.
(3) With B as centre and any radius, draw arcs intersecting AC at S and Q.
(4) With S and Q as centre and same radius, draw two arcs which are intersecting at the point R.
(5) Join BR which intersect AC at the point D. Hence BD ⊥ AC.
(6) Draw a perpendicular bisector of side BC which intersect side BC at point O.
(7) Taking O as centre and radius equal to side BO = OC, draw a circle which passes through the point B, D and C.
(8) Taking A as centre and radius 6 cm (v AB = 6 cm), draw an arc intersecting the circle at the point T.
(9) Join AT and extend it to the point P.
∴ AP is also tangent from the point A.
So, AP and AB are the required tangents.

OR

Given : BC = 7 cm
∠B = 45°, ∠A = 105°
In ∆ABC,
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
105° + 45° + ∠C = 180°
∠C = 180° – 150° = 30°

Steps of construction :
(1) Draw a line segment BC = 7 cm.
(2) Make ∠B = 45° and ∠C = 30° to obtain ∆ABC.
(3) Draw a ray BX such that ∠CBX is an acute angle.
(4) Mark 4 points B₁, B₂, B₃ B₄ on line BX such that BB₁ = B₁B₂ – B₂B₃ – B₃B₄.
(5) Join B₄C.
(6) Through B₃ draw a parallel line to B₄C which meets BC at the point C
(7) Through C’, draw a line parallel to AC which meets the line BA at the point A’.
A’BC’ is the required triangle.

Solution 26:
Pythagoras theorem : In a right angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠B = 90°
To prove : AC² = AB² + BC²
Construction : Draw BD ⊥ AC
Proof : In ∆ABC and ∆BDC

Solution 27:

Solution 28:
Given
sec θ + tan θ = l
We know that,
sec² θ – tan² θ = 1
=> (sec θ + tan θ) (sec θ – tan θ) = 1
=> (l) (sec θ – tan θ) = 1
=> sec θ – tan θ = \(\\ \frac { 1 }{ l } \)
On adding equations (i) and (ii), we get

Solution 29:
Let P be the balloon at a height h m from the ground,
and position of the cars be A and B respectively.
∴ OP = h m
AB = 100 m and OA = x m
In ∆OPA,

Solution 30:
Given, the radii of bucket are 14 cm and r cm.
Its height, h = 15 cm
Volume = 5390 cm³
We know,

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2

These Sample Papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions

• The question paper has 26 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Each questions carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 26 is a map question. It has two parts 26(A) and 26(B). 26(A) of 2 marks from History and 26(B) of 3 marks from Geography. After completion attach the map inside your answer book.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in some questions. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such-questions.

Question. 1.
What are the provinces under the Habsberg Empire ?
OR
Which was the most important cause of colonisation of Vietnam by the French ?

Question. 2.
How were woodblocks used in the early fifteen century in Europe ?
OR
What is Dastan ?

Question. 3.
What is the most important benefit of ‘hydrological cycle’ ?

Question. 4.
Which is the third level government of Belgium ?

Question. 5.
Why the modem currency is accepted as a medium of exchange ?

Question. 6.
Mr. Jammy is the C.E.O. of an MNC located in Italy and wants to invest in India. How this investment is different from foreign trade ?

Question. 7.
If you are not interested to buy a brush with toothpaste but the shopkeeper denies to sell toothpaste only. In this case which consumer right is being violated by the seller ?

Question. 8.
State three features of the Napoleonic code.
OR
Why were road and railway network built by French in Vietnam ?

Question. 9.
Why did the woodblock method become popular in Europe ?
OR
Who was the writer of first modem Hindi novel which became a best-seller ? Name that novel and also mention the reasons for its popularity.

Question. 10.
What are the various methods of soil conservation ?

Question. 11.
Ram Lai is a farmer in the state of Madhya Pradesh and wants to have some benefit from the government institutional programmes which shall be in his interest. Mention any three reforms introduced by the government in this respect.

Question. 12.
In what ways is the judiciary important for Indian Federalism ?

Question. 13.
“At least one-fourth of the globe is still not under democratic government.” Explain the challenge to democracy.

Question. 14.
What are the political outcomes of democracy ?

Question. 15.
Besides income, what are other things people may look for growth and development ?

Question. 16.
What is money ? Why is modem money currency accepted as a medium of exchange ?

Question. 17.
Explain the meaning of HDI. Mention three components of measuring HDI.

Question. 18.
Mention any two rights of consumers with examples.

Question. 19.
Examine the main features of global agricultural economy that emerged around 1890.
OR
What is meant by Proto-industrialisation ? How did it affect the rural peasants and artisans ?
OR
Charles Dickens wrote in his book ‘Dombey and Son’ about the massive destruction in the process of construction of underground railways. What did he write ? How according to one newspaper reader, underground railways were a menace to health ?

Question. 20.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement ? Explain.
OR
Name two prominent industrialists who supported Civil Disobedience Movement. Why did the initial enthusiasm of the merchants and industrialists fade away during the later stages of the Civil Disobedience Movement ?

Question. 21.
In what ways industries pollute environment ? Discuss with examples.

Question. 22.
Classify roads of India on the basis of their capacity.
OR
Indian road transportation is confronted with problem. Justify this statement.

Question. 23.
What is a political party ? Write some characteristics of a political party.

Question. 24.
“Describe the popular water struggle of Bolivia.
OR
“Every social difference does not lead to social division.” Explain the statement.

Question. 25.
Iqbal is a construction worker, Raju is a mine worker and Faisal has his own tailoring shop. What is the nature of activity for each of them. Also identify the sector of economy in which Iqbal, Raju and Faisal are working. Evaluate how Faisal’s work and sector is different from the other two.
OR
Himanshu lives in the city of Gurugram. When he was in school there were few call centers in his city, while now he is in college and finds hundreds of call centres and BPOs near his locality. What factors are responsible for this growth ?

Question. 26.
(A) Two features (a) and (b) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked near them.

(a) A place where Khilafat Committee was formed in 1919.
(b) A place where Militant Guerrilla Movement spread under the leadership of Alluri Sitaram Raju.
(B) Locate and label the following with appropriate symbols on the same given outline map of India.
(i) An oil field
(ii) A mica mine
(iii) A nuclear power plant.

ANSWERS

Answer. 1.
Mabsberg empire include the Alpine region Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland as well as Bohemia where the aristocracy was predominantly German-speaking along with Italian speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. The need for constant supply of raw materials to feed the industries in France was the main cause of colonisation of Vietnam by the French.

Answer. 2.
In the early 15th century, woodblocks were being widely used to print textiles, religious scriptures and playing cards in Europe.
OR
Prose tales of heroism and adventure in Persian and Urdu are known as Dastan.

Answer. 3.
‘Hydrological cycle’ recharges the ground water which is quite essential for the sustanance of wildlife and human beings as well.

Answer. 4.
Community government is the third level government in Belgium. A community government is one in which different social groups are given the power to handle the affairs related to their communities.

Answer. 5.
Modern currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because it is authorised and issued by the government of the country.

Answer. 6.
Foreign investment is that investment which is made by an MNC or a financial institution in another country. It is different from foreign trade as foreign trade is exchange of capitals, goods and services across international borders or territories. It helps in connecting the market of different countries across the world. It can take place through import, export or joint ventures.

Answer. 7.
In this case Right to Choose is being violated by the seller. It is a consumer right to be assured to have access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.

Answer. 8.
The Civil Code of 1804 was known as the Napoleonic Code.

Following were the three features of this code :

1. He abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
2. Right to property was given and abolished all the privileges based as birth.
3. A uniform system of weights and measures was introduced to facilitate the movements and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.

OR
Road and railway network were built by French in Vietnam because :

1. To transport raw materials from the interior parts of Vietnam to the port cities.
2. To link the northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China.
3. Roads and railways were needed for the fast movement of the army.

Answer. 9.
Woodblocks were being widely used in Europe to print textiles, playing cards and religious pictures with simple, brief texts, in the early 15th century. Before this manuscripts were being used for writing purpose which was done manually by people. The reason for the woodblock method becoming popular in Europe are :

1. The manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle and could not be read easily and carried around. Circulation therefore remained limited.
2. Production of handwritten manuscripts could not meet the ever increasing demand for books. Copying was an expensive, laborious arid time consuming business.
3. Thus, with the growing demand for books, woodblock printing gradually became more and more popular as the cost of production by woodblock was cheaper.

OR
Devki Nandan Khatri was the writer of the first modern Hindi novel ‘Chandrakanta’ which became a best seller.

1. It was full of romance with dazzling elements of familiarity, it is believed to have contributed immensely in popularizing the Hindi language and the Nagari script among the educated classes of those times.
2. Although it was written purely for the pleasure of reading, this novel also gives some interesting insights into the fear happines, mystery, fantacy, etc.

Answer. 10.
Soil conservation includes all those measures which help in protecting the soil from erosion and exhaustion.
Various methods of soil conservation are :

1. Contour ploughing : Ploughing along the contour lines can check the flow of water down the slopes. It is also called as contour ploughing. It can be practiced on the hills.
2. Terrace cultivation : Slopes may be cut into a series of steps to make terraces with sufficient level of ground on each terrace for cultivation. It restricts soil erosion. It is practiced in western and central Himalayas.
3. Planting of shelter belts : Planting lines of trees to create shelter belts have contributed significantly for the stabilisation of sand dunes and also in stabilising the desert in western India.

Answer. 11.
To benefit farmers like Ram Lai, the government has introduced many institutional reforms, which are listed below :

1. The government has established the Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR), agriculture universities and animal breeding centre to carry out research and development activities in Indian agriculture.
2. Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and crop insurance schemes have been launched for the benefit of the farmers.
3. The government is also investing in rural infrastructure to modernise rural markets and to make them competitive.

Answer. 12.
Judiciary is important for Indian federalism as :

1. It plays a pivotal role in the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedure.
2. Judiciary administers both the Union and the State laws which are applicable to the cases coming up for adjudication.
3. Judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex is the sole interpreter of the Indian Constitution. The disputes about the division of powers are settled by the judiciary.

Answer. 13.
According to the Democracy Index of 2012, there is democracy in 167 countries of the world, of them 165 countries are members of the United Nations.

The challenge to democracy in these parts is very stark. These countries face the foundation challenge of making the transition to democracy and then instituting a democratic government. This involves bringing down the existing non-democratic government.

Military should be kept away from controlling the government to establish a sovereign and functional state.

Thus, it can be concluded that at least one-fourth of the globe is still not under democratic government.

Answer. 14.
The most basic political outcome of democracy is the establishment of an accountable government which is responsible and answerable to the voters.
Some other political outcomes of democracy are as follows :

1. It ensures right to the citizens to choose their leaders and put a check on them.
2. It generates its own political support for itself and promotes regular, free and fair elections.
3. It provides procedures and develops mechanism for decision-making. If required, people can participate in decision-making either directly or through representatives.

Answer. 15.
Though income is one of the most important aspect of our lives, but there are other , important things that people look for growth and development such as :

1. People seek equal treatment, freedom, security and respect.
2. Women need safe and secure environment to take up a variety of jobs or to run a business.
3. People need political rights.

Answer. 16.
Money is anything which has common acceptability as a means of exchange, a measure and a store of value. Modern money currency has been accepted as a medium of exchange because :

1. Money solves the problem of double coincidence of wants.
2. Money is sometimes paid as advance with the promise of delivery of goods later.
3. Goods and services are being bought and sold with the use of money easily.

Answer. 17.
HDI stands for Human Development Index. It may be defined as the process of widening people’s choices as well as raising the level of their well-being. The concept of HDI goes beyond income and growth to cover all human choices. It put the people at the centre stage and covers all aspects of human development with the aim of improving the conditions of the people from all angles. It is a broader approach to development.

Components of Measuring HDI :

1. Life Expectancy : It is the average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
2. Per Capita Income : Mean income of the people is an economic unit. It is calculated by dividing the total national income of a country by population. It is calculated in dollars for all countries so that it can be compared.
3. Gross Enrolment Ratio for Three Levels : It means enrolment ratio for primary school secondary schools and higher education beyond secondary level.

Answer. 18.
Right of the consumers are :

(i) Right to Choose : Any consumer who receives a service in whatever capacity, regardless of age, gender and nature of service has the ‘right to choose’.
Example : Suppose you want to buy a soap and the shop owner says that he can sell the soap only if you buy a shampoo. If you are not interested in buying the shampoo, your right to choose is denied.
The consumer has every right to purchase only those things that he wants to purchase.

(ii) Right to be Informed : In order to protect the consumers from the exploitation of the producers or the shopkeepers, the consumers have been provided the ‘Right to be Informed’. Under this right, the consumer should be informed about the ingredients used, price, batch number, date of manufacture, expiry date and address of the manufacturer.
Example : Suppose you want to purchase garments, you must be informed about its quality and price as well as the instructions for their washing.

Answer. 19.
By 1890, a global agricultural economy had taken shape. It was accompanied by complex changes in labour movement patterns, capital flows, ecologies and technologies.
The features of global agriculture economy were as follows :

1. Food and other products : Food and other products started flowing from far away places. It was no longer grown by a peasant tilling his own land, but by an agricultural worker. Farmers started working in fields and the agriculture had became an activity based on modern technologies and irrigation facilities.
2. Infrastructure : The food and other products being transported by railways and by ships which were manned in these decades by low paid workers from southern Europe Asia Africa and the Caribbean Islands.
3. Raw materials : Indian farmers were producing raw cotton and other farm products for British industries. World trade between 1820 and 1914 multiplied about 25 to 40 times.
4. Scrapping of Corn Law : The scrapping of the Corn Law laid the foundation of free trade. Now food could be imported or exported into Britain freely.
5. Commercialisation of Agriculture in Colonies : The imperial countries took various steps to commercialise agriculture in their colonies. For example, British government built a network of irrigation canals to transform semi-desert waste land of west Punjab into fertile agriculture land.

OR
Even before the beginning of the industrial revolution, there was a large scale industrial production for an international market, which was not based on the modern factories. This phase of industrialisation is referred to as Proto-industrialisation.

1. In the 17th and 18th centuries, merchants from towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money to the peasants and artisans to produce for the international market.
2. Many had a tiny plot of land which could not provide work to all the members of the family. It supplemented their incomes.
3. It was a period when open fields were disappearing and common land were fenced. Poor peasants, who were earlier dependent on common land, had to find a new way of survival—when merchants offered advances, they readily agreed to work for them.
4. The whole family was engaged in production work which further increased their earnings.
5. They could now remain in the villages, retain a part of their production on their land and sell excess to the merchants.

OR
Charles Dickens wrote in his book ‘Dombey and Son’ about the massive destruction in the process of construction of underground railways. He wrote :

1. Deep pits and trenches were dug into the ground.
2. Houses were knocked down, streets broken through and stopped.
3. There were a hundred and thousand shapes and substances of incompleteness.
4. Enormous heaps of earth and clay was thrown up.

According to one newspaper reader, the underground railways were a menace to health because the compartment in which he travelled was filled with passengers smoking pipes. The atmosphere was full of mixture of sulphur, coal and dust. The gas lamps gave foul smell. By the time the train reached Moorgate he was nearly dead because of suffocation and heat.

Answer. 20.
Under the leadership of Gandhiji, the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in 1930. The movement spread and salt laws were challenged in many parts of the country. The Civil Disobedience Movement carried forward the unfinished work of the Non-Cooperation movement. Practically the whole country became a part of it.
But there were many reasons as to why Gandhiji called off the Civil Disobedience Movement as:

1. Mahatma Gandhi himself was arrested which led to attacks on police posts, municipal buildings, law courts, etc.
2. The colonial government began to use stern steps to stop the mass agitation. Various Congress leaders were arrested which led to widespread violent clashes with the police.
3. The British once again began a series of brutal repression of the demonstrators L and attacked peaceful Satyagrahis. Women and children were beaten badly.
4. The arrest of Abdul Gaffar Khan in Peshawar resulted in a demonstration and defying of police authority by the crowd. Many died in the clash. A large number of people were arrested. Apprehending the situation turning violent and going out of control, Gandhiji decided to call off the movement.

OR
Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla were two prominent industrialists who supported the Civil Disobedience Movement. The initial enthusiam of the merchants and industrialists faded away during the later stages of the Civil Disobedience

Movement because of the following reasons :

1. The failure of the Round Table Conference demoralised the business groups who lost the enthusiasm to be a part of any such movement.
2. The spread of militant activities worried the business classes as there were long disruptions in business due to frequent bandhs and hartals (strikes).
3. The businessmen saw swaraj as freedom from colonial restrictions on business and expansion of trade and industry without constraints but the britishers refused to back down and grant swaraj to India.
4. They were also afraid of the growing influence of socialism among the younger members of the Congress.

Answer. 21.
Industries pollute the environment by polluting air, water and land. They also cause noise pollution. They have increased pollution and resulted in a degraded environment. The pollution created by industries can be classified as :

1. Land pollution : It is caused by dumping of non-biodegradable solid waste from industries in landfill sites.
2. Air pollution : Industries cause air pollution by the emission of gases from industrial complexes and power generation units. Leakage of poisonous gases and chemicals from chemical industries and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories also leads to air pollution.
3. Water pollution : It is caused when industrial effluents both organic and inorganic are discharged into rivers or other water bodies. Some other common pollutants of the water pollution are fertilisers, pesticides, dyes, soaps, etc.
4. Noise pollution : Undesirable noise pollution from industries like construction, running of generators to generate power, electrical drill, etc., is responsible for disturbing our environment.
5. Thermal pollution : It occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.

Answer. 22.
Roads in India are classified on the basis of their capacity are as follows :

1. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways : These projects are implemented by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI). There are three major super highways. Golden quadrilateral starts from Delhi, moves to Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and back to Delhi. The North-South Corridor starts from Srinagar to Kanyakumari. The East- West corridor connects Silchar to Porbandar.
2. National Highways : These roads are laid and maintained by Central Public Works Department (CPWD). A number of major National Highways run in North- South and East-West directions, e.g., Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No. 1.
3. State Highways : Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as state highways. These roads are constructed and maintained by States and Union Territories.
4. District Roads : These roads connect the district headquarters with other places of the district and are maintained by the Zila Parishad.
5. Rural Roads : These roads link rural areas and villages with town. They are constructed under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana.

OR
Major problems faced by road transport in India are :

1. Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers the road network is inadequate.
2. About 50% of the roads are unmetalled.
3. This limit the usage during the rainy season.
4. The National Highways are also inadequate.
5. The roads are highly congested in cities.
6. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Answer. 23.
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. A political party has three components.

1. Party leadership
2. Party members
3. Party followers

Political parties are one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. They reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. They are a part of the society and involve partnership.

Characteristics of a political party are :

1. Political parties are groups of well organised and like minded people with the same views and opinions.
2. The members of the political parties agree on the policies and programmes to be implemented for the benefit of the society with a view to promote collective good.
3. Every political party has one common aim that is to attain power in one way or the another. To achieve this aim they contest elections and try to win them. If they single handedly are unable to win a majority, they make an alliance with other parties to form a coalition government.
4. Political parties try to persuade people that their policies are better than those of other parties. They are a part of society and thus involve in partnership.
5. A political party runs with the help of its leaders, active members and supporters. It is generally known by what it stands for, the policies it supports and the interests it upholds.

Answer. 24.

Popular Water Struggle of Bolivia :

1. Bolivia is a small and poor country in Latin America. Bolivia’s water war is the struggle against ‘Water Privatisation’.
2. The World Bank pressurised the government to give up its control of municipal water. The government sold these rights to a multinational company which increased the water prices by four times. Many people received monthly water bill of ₹ 1,000 in a country where average income is around ₹ 5,000 in a month.
3. The protest against water privatization was not led by a political party. It was led by an organisation called FEDECOR which comprised local professionals, including [ engineers and environmentalists. In January 2000, a new alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organised successful one day strike. The government agreed to negotiate and the strike was called off.
4. The police resorted to brutal regression when the agitation started in February and the government imposed martial law. But the power of people forced the officials of the MNC to flee the city and made government concede to all the demand of the protestors. The movement forced the Bolivian government to change its decision.
5. The contract with MNC was cancelled and the water supply was restored with the municipal at old rates. The movement forced the Bolivian government to change its decision. This popular struggle is also known as ‘Bolivia’s Water Cool’.

OR
Every social differences does not lead to social division :

1. Social differences divide similar people from one another, but they also unite very different people. For example, “Carlos and Smith were similar to each other but they were different from Norman who was white. But Norman did sympathise with Carlos and Smith.
2. People belonging to different social groups share differences and similarities cutting across the boundaries of their groups.
3. It is fairly common for people belonging to the same religion to feel that they do not belong to the same community, because their caste or sect is different.
4. It is also possible for people from different religions to have the same caste and feel close to each other.

Answer. 25.
Iqbal is a construction worker and thus would be catagorised under secondary unorganised sector.

Raju is a mine worker, hence his work would be covered under unorganised primary sector.

Faisal has his own tailoring shop and provides his services to the people. His nature of work comes under tertiary sector but it is also unorganised.

1. Tertiary sector is different from other two sectors in a way that; the primary sector and secondary sector produces goods but tertiary sector provides services and does not produce any good.
2. Tertiary sector helps in the development of the primary sector, secondary sector.
3. The activities under tertiary sector provide aid and support for the production process.
4. The services under tertiary sectors increase the efficiency of production process and also provide the necessary information and knowledge required for the development of a country.
5. Examples of tertiary sector activities are : Bank clerks, teachers, doctors, transportation services, etc.

OR
Major factors responsible for the high growth of the service sector in India :

1. Economic reforms in 1991 : Economic reforms introduced in 1991 allowed MNCs to enter the Indian market. It abolished restrictions on foreign investment and opened the doors for inflow of foreign capital. Government-liberalised policy enabled the increase of foreign direct invesment drastically. It brought several changes in the Indian market.
2. Low labour cost : The cost of labour in India was comparatively lower than developed nations. This attracted multinational companies to outsource their business service activities in India. Hence, the service industry was rapidly grown with the companies who identified the importance of business outsourcing process such as trainining, teaching and marketing to improve their business performance.
3. Growth of Information Technology (IT): Growth of the service sector was highly stimulated by the growth of Information Technology (IT) in India. IT helped to perform vital service businesses in the country. Highly skilled software resources are found in India. Many state governments such as Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Delhi emphasised on the importance of the IT sector.
4. Increase in the income level of people : With the increase in the income level of people, the demand for services like hospitals, teachers and tourism has been increasing. This change can be well experienced in the cities.
5. Growth and development in the primary and secondary sector : Tertiary sector provides its services to the primary and secondary sectors and helps in the growth of primary and secondary sector.

Answer. 26.
The answer map is given below.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 , drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Paper 8

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Paper 8.

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory.
• All questions of Section-A and B are to be attempted separately.
• There is an internal choice in two questions of three marks each and one question of five marks.
• Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section-A are one mark question. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section-A are 5 mark questions. These are to be answered in 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section-B are based on practical skills. Each question is a two marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

SECTION – A

Question. 1.
Where are guard cells found and what is their function ?

Question. 2.
What is the difference between gustatory receptor and olfactory receptor ?

Question. 3.
What is meant by strong acids and weak acids ? Classify the following into strong acids and weak acids:
HCl,CH₃COOH, H₂SO₄, HNO₃, H₂CO₃,H₂SO₃.

Question. 4.
What is colour-blindness ? What kind of retinal cells are lacking in person suffering from this defect ?

Question. 5.
Why are antacids used when people suffer from indigestion ?

Question. 6.
How would the strength of magnetic field due to a current-carrying loop be affected if :
(a) the radius of the loop is reduced to half of its original value, and
(b) the strength of the current through the loop is doubled ?
OR
What is a solenoid ? Draw magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying solenoid. Write three important features of the magnetic field obtained.

Question. 7.
Find the equivalent resistance across the two ends A and B of the circuit.

Question. 8.
Properties of the elements are given below. Where would you locate the following elements in the periodic table
(a) A soft metal stored under kerosene
(b) An element with variable (more than one) valency stored under water.
(c) An element which is tetravalent and forms the basis of organic chemistry.
(d) An element which is an inert gas with atomic number 2.
(e) An element whose thin oxide layer is used to make other elements corrosion resistant by the process of ‘anodising’.

Question. 9.
What is periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the Modem periodic table ? Why do all the elements in a particular group have similar properties ? How does the tendency of elements to gain electrons change as we move from left to right along a period ? What are the reasons for the change ?

Question. 10.
Write one feature which is common each of the following pairs of terms or organs ?
(a) Gills and lungs
(b) Chlorophyll and haemoglobin
(c) Arteries and veins
OR
Bring out the differences between arteries and veins.

Question. 11.
How was Mendel able to show that the traits inherited in his experiments were either dominant or recessive ?

Question. 12.
An object of 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size.

Question. 13.
(a) Name the following compounds :

(b) What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane ?
OR
What are hydrocarbons ? Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons. How are alkenes converted into alkanes ?

Question. 14.
Why plants appear to bend towards the light ?

Question. 15.
Write a note on fossil fuels and state the consequences of their use on the environment ?

Question. 16.
Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the function of a split ring in an electric motor ?

Question. 17.
List the merits and drawbacks of Mendeleev periodic table.
OR
Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of electronic shells but different number of electrons in their outermost shell. It was found that elements A and G combine to form an ionic compound. This compoundis added in a small amount to almost all vegetable dishes during cooking. Oxides of elements A and B are basic in nature while those of E and F are acidic. The oxide of D is almost neutral. Based on the above information answer the following questions :

(a) To which group or period of the Periodic Table do the listed elements belong ?
(b) What would be the nature of compound formed by a combination of elements B and F ?
(c) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals ?
(d) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature ?
(e) If the number of electrons in the outermost shell of elements C and G be 3 and 7 respectively, write the formula of the compound formed by he combination of C and G.

Question. 18.
What are the different methods of contraception ?

Question. 19.
(a) List three common refractive defects of vision. Suggest the way of correcting these defects.
(b) About 45 lac people in the developing countries are suffering from corneal blindness. About 30 lakh children below the age of 12 years suffering from this defect can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. How and why can students of your age involve themselves to create awareness about this fact among people ?

Question. 20.
What is thermal decomposition ? Are decomposition reactions opposite of combination reactions ? Show with examples.

Question. 21.
What are the conventional sources of energy ? What precautions should be taken while constructing a dam to generate hydroelectricity ?
OR
Human beings are on top of any food chain. Is this harmful for humans in the long run ? Does the term biological magnification apply here ?

SECTION – B

Question. 22.
10 ml of a solution of NaOH is completely neutralised by 8 ml of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 ml of the same solution of NaOH find the amount of HCl solution required to neutralise it.

Question. 23.
Is respiration an exothermic reaction ? Why ?

Question. 24.
A student observed permanent slide of yeast reproduction.
(a) What method would he have seen ?
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of his observation.

Question. 25.
When we chew bread it tastes sweet. Why ? What is the role of saliva in digestion of food ?

Question. 26.
Find the focal length of the concave mirror in the experimental set-up shown in figure.

OR
In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab, angle of incidence in air was given as 60°. Two students P and Q found angle of refraction as 42° and 65° respectively. Who is right and why ?

Question. 27.
An ammeter has 20 divisions between mark 0 and mark 2 on its scale. Find the least count of the ammeter.

ANSWERS

SECTION – A

Answer. 1.
Guard cells are kidney shaped cells found on either side of the stomata in the epidermis of the leaves. They help in opening and closing the stomatal pore by shrinking and enlarging.

Answer. 2.
Gustatory and olfactory receptors are special nerve cells found in the sense organs like the tongue and nose respectively that help to detect information from the environment and make the body respond to it suitably. The information from the environment is detected by specialized tips of the nerve cells in these parts.

Answer. 3.
A strong acid is one that completely ionises in water to form a large amount of hydrogen ions whereas a weak acid only partially ionises in water and thus produces a small amount of hydrogen ions.
Strong acids : HCl, H₂SO₄, HNO₃
Weak acids : CH₃COOH, H₂CO₃.

Answer. 4.
The defect of the eye due to which a person is unable to distinguish between certain colours, is known as colour blindness. Cone shaped retinal cells are responsible for making a person differentiate between colours. The colour blind persons do not possess cone cells that respond to certain colours.

Answer. 5.
When people suffer from indigestion antacids like milk of Magnesia are used because they have a pH which makes them alkaline. This basic nature of the antacids helps to neutralize the acidity in the stomach thereby facilitating digestion.

Answer. 6.
(a) If the radius of current loop is reduced to half of its original value, the strength of magnetic field is doubled as magnetic field (B) is inversely proportional to the radius (r) of loop.
(b) As strength of magnetic field is proportional to current (I) flowing through the loop (B α I), the magnetic field is doubled if current is doubled.

OR
A solenoid is a coil of large number of circular turns of wire wrapped in the shape of a cylinder. On passing electric current, a magnetic field is developed. Magnetic field lines are drawn below. The field is along the axis of solenoid such that one end of solenoid behaves as north pole and the other south pole. Thus, field of a solenoid is similar to that of a bar magnet. Important features of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid are:

1. Magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are nearly straight and parallel to its axis. It shows that magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
2. Magnetic field of solenoid is identical to that due to a bar magnet with one end of solenoid behaving as a north pole and other end as a south pole.
3. A current-carrying solenoid exhibits the directive and attractive properties of a bar magnet.

Answer. 7.
Equivalent resistance of R₁ and R₂ joined in parallel is R₁₂, where

Similarly R₅₆ and R₇₈ are in series and make a resistance R₁₀ = 2 Ω
Finally R₉ and R₁₀ are connected in parallel between the points A and B are hence equivalent resistance R is given as

Answer. 8.

(a) Sodium (Na) Group 1 and Period 3 or Potassium (K) Group 1 and Period 4
(b) Phosphorus (P) Group 15 and Period 3
(c) Carbon (C) Group 14 and Period 2
(d) Helium (He) Group 18 and Period 1
(e) Aluminium (Al) Group 13 and Period 3.

Answer. 9.
The occurrence of elements with similar properties after certain regular intervals when they are arranged in increasing order of their atomic number is called periodicity. The periodic repetition of the properties is due to the recurrence of similar valence shell configuration at regular intrervals. The elements in a group have same valence electrons and so they have similar properties. In a period, tendency to gain electrons increases from left to right. This happens because the hold of the nucleus on the outermost electrons becomes weak and so the electrons are lost easily.

Answer. 10.
(a) Both gills and lungs are respiratory organs which helps in gaseous exchange. Gills are found in fishes whereas lungs in human beings.
(b) Both chlorophyll and haemoglobin have porphyrin structure that binds to a central metal atom to form a complex. In chlorophyll central metal atom is Mg and haemoglobin is iron.
(c) Both arteries and veins carry blood. They are blood vessels.
OR
There is a well-developed circulatory system in human beings. It consists of a large number of blood vessels and a powerful pumping organ called the heart. The heart lies slightly to the left of the thoracic region and it is the size of a person’s closed fist. The different blood vessels are the arteries, veins and the capillaries. The capillaries are extremely thin-walled blood vessels that form a link between the arteries and the veins and function as the main path of exchange between them.

Arteries

1. Arteries have thick, elastic walls.
2. Arteries carry blood from the heart to different parts of the body
3. Arteries carry pure or oxygenated blood.
4. Blood flows at high pressure in the arteries.
5. Arteries are placed deep inside muscles.

Veins

1. Veins have thin walls.
2. Veins collect blood from different parts of the body and bring it to the heart.
3. Veins carry impure or deoxygenated blood.
4. Blood flows at lower pressure in the veins.
5. Veins are placed superficially.

Answer. 11.
While doing his experiments, Mendel found that there are some traits that are inherited but are not expressed. He called them recessive characters. Mendel clearly explained this with the help of the monohybrid cross.

In a monohybrid cross performed by Mendel, a tall plant (homozygous) was crossed with a dwarf plant (homozygous). In the F₁ generation all plants produced were tall in appearance. Next these tall plants were self- pollinated. In the F₂ generation it was found that tall and dwarf plants appeared in the ratio of 3 :1. This clearly showed that the dwarf character was not lost but suppressed in the Fa generation and expressed itself in the F₂ generation.

Answer. 12.

Answer. 13.
(a) (i) Bromoethane, (ii) Formaldehyde, (iii) Cyclohexene.
(b) The molecular formula is C₅H₁₀. Its structural formula is:
Cyclopentane (C₅H₁₀)

OR
Hydrocarbons are organic compounds made up of carbon and hydrogen. There are two kinds of hydrocarbons, saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(i) Saturated hydrocarbons: These include the alkanes in which we find only single bond between the carbon atoms. Their general formula is C_nH_2n+2. The simplest alkane is methane – CH₄. Its structural formula is

(ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons : These are the compounds of carbon having double and triple bonds between the carbon atoms. They include the alkenes and alkynes. The alkenes (C_nH_2n) have double bonds in them. The alkynes (C_nH_2n-2) have triple bonds in them.

The reaction which converts unsaturated hydrocarbons (alkenes) to saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) is called hydrogenation. It helps to obtain ghee from oil.

Answer. 14.
Phototropism means the response of plant parts towards sunlight. Here sunlight is the stimulus, while the shoot system responds positively to sunlight the root system responds negatively to sunlight. Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment. They are synthesised at places away from where they act and simply diffuse to the area of action.

When growing plants detect light, a hormone called auxin which is synthesised at root tips helps the cells grow longer. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of the auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus, the plant appears to bend towards light.

Answer. 15.
In ancient times, wood was the most common source of energy with forests being in plenty around us. With industrial revolution, coal became a new source of energy. With increasing industrialisation life became comfortable and coal and petroleum became the new energy sources. There was an increased usage of these fossil fuels which unfortunately were non-renewable. Once people realised they are soon coming to the end of our coal and petrol resources they started looking for alternate sources of energy.

Fossil fuels have several disadvantages too. They lead to air pollution due to their fumes. The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur that are released on burning fossil fuels are acidic oxides. They mix with water in the atmosphere and form acids like carbonic acid, nitric acid and sulphuric acid which come down as acid rain. Acid rain affects the soil by affecting the lives of many organisms in the soil and making the soil unfit for growth of plants. In addition release of carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide from vehicle exhausts leads to the greenhouse effect on the earth’s surface. It raises the global temperature and causes global warming.

Answer. 16.
Electric motor : A labelled diagram of an electric motor has been shown in Fig.

Principle : A current – carrying conductor, when placed in a magnetic field, experiences a force. If the direction of the field and that of the current are mutually perpendicular then force acting on the conductor will be perpendicular to both and will be given by Fleming’s left-hand rule. Due to this force the conductor begins to move, if it is free to do so.

Working : Let current in the coil ABCD of motor enters from the source battery through the conducting brush X, flows along ABCD and finally flows back to the battery through brush Y. On applying Fleming’s left-hand rule we find that force acting on arm AB due to magnetic field pushes it downwards. But the force acting on arm CD pushes it upwards. Thus, the coil and the axle rotate anticlockwise. Due to action of split ring commutator at half rotation split rings P and Q change their contacts with brushes. Now, P makes contact with Y and Q with X. As a result, current begins to flow in coil along DCBA. As a result, now AB arm is being pushed upward and arm CD downward by the magnetic force. Consequently the coil rotates half a turn more in the same direction. This reversing of current direction is repeated at each half rotate and so the coil continues to rotation in the same direction.

Answer. 17.
Merits of Mendeleev Periodic Table :

1. At some places the order of atomic weight was changed in order to justify the chemical and physical nature.
2. Mendeleev left some gap for new elements which were not discovered at that time.
3. One of the strengths of Mendeleev’s periodic table was that, when inert gases were discovered they could be placed in a new group without disturbing the existing order.

Drawbacks of Mendeleev Periodic Table :

1. Position of hydrogen: Hydrogen resembles alkali metals (forms H⁺ ion just like Na⁺ ions) as well as halogens (forms H^– ion similar to Cl^– ion). Therefore, it could neither be placed with alkali metals (group I) nor with halogens (group VII).
2. Position of isotopes: Different isotopes of same elements have different atomic masses, therefore, each one of them should be given a different position in the periodic table. On the other hand, because they are chemically similar, they had to be given same position.
3. Anomalous pairs of elements : At certain places, an element of higher atomic mass has been placed before an element of lower mass. For example, Argon (39.91) is placed before potassium (39.1).

OR

1. A and B belong to group 1 and 2 because they form basic oxides. C belongs to group 13 as it has 3 valence electrons. D belongs to group 14 as it forms almost neutral oxide. E and F belong to group 15 and 15 as they form acidic oxides, G belongs to group 17 as it has 7 valence electrons and H belongs to group 18. They belong to 3rd period of the Period Table because AG is NaCl, added in a small amount to almost all vegetable dishes during cooking and Na and Cl belong to 3rd period.
2. Ionic compounds will be formed because ‘B’ is metal and ‘F’ is non-metal. ‘B’ can lose two ‘ electrons and ‘F’ can gain two electrons. .
3. A and B are definitely metals as they form basic oxides.
4. G and H are gaseous at room temperature.
5. CG₃ is the formula of the compound formula by combination of C and G.

Answer. 18.
The different methods of contraception are :

1. Those that create a mechanical barrier so that the sperm does not reach the egg. They include condoms on the penis or similar coverings on the vagina.
2. A second category acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation does not occur. These are drugs taken as oral pills. However as they change hormonal balance they cause side effects too.
3. There are contraceptive devices placed in the uterus such as the loop or the copper T to prevent pregnancy. This could cause side effects like irritation in the uterus.
4. Surgery is used to create blocks in the vas deferens of the male so that sperm transfer is prevented. Surgery is also used to block the fallopian tube so that the egg does not reach the uterus. While surgical methods are safe in the long run surgery itself could cause infections and other problems if not done properly.

Answer. 19.
(a) The three common refractive defects of vision are :

1. Myopia (or near sightedness): It is corrected by using concave lenses of appropriate power.
2. Hypermetropia (or far sightedness): It is corrected by using convex lenses of appropriate power.
3. Presbyopia: It is corrected by using bifocal lenses of appropriate power in which the upper part consists of a concave lens (to correct myopia) and lower part consists of convex lens (to correct hypermetropia).

(b) Eyes of a dead person can be donated to the person having corneal blindness, it will help him/ her to see the world. We can also register ourselves and encourage others also to register to eye donation camps who can preserve our eyes after our death and donate them to the needy.

Answer. 20.
Thermal decomposition is a decomposition reaction carried out by heating. The decomposition of calcium carbonate into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide on heating is an example of thermal decomposition. The calcium oxide formed is also called lime or quicklime.
CaCO₃(s) \(\underrightarrow { on\quad heating }\) CaO(s) + CO₂(g)

Yes decomposition reactions can be regarded as opposite of combination reactions. Decomposition reactions require energy in the form of heat, light or electricity to break down the reactants. Such reactions which absorb energy are called endothermic reactions. On the other hand, in combination reactions heat is given out. Such reactions are called exothermic reactions. Here are some examples.

1. Glucose combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water with the liberation of energy.
   C₆H₁₂O6(aq) + 6O₂(g) → 6CO₂ (aq) + 6H₂O(1) + Energy
2. Methane or natural gas burning in air forms carbon dioxide and water.
   CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(g)

Answer. 21.
In ancient times, wood was the most common source of heat energy. Soon the energy of flowing water and wind was also used to generate power. Coal and petroleum, well known as fossil fuels started serving mankind right after the industrial revolution. However they are non-renewable resources, Moreover, burning fossil fuels leads to certain problems too like air pollution, global warming and acid rain. Hence, man is making use of water and wind to fulfil his energy requirement.

Hydroelectricity or hydel electricity is the generatipn of electricity using the power of water. It is a means to generate electricity either from the kinetic energy of flowing water or the potential energy of falling water. In our country we primarily focus on storing huge quantities of water by building dams across rivers. The water from the high levels in the dam is carried through pipes to a turbine at the bottom of the dam. As rains regularly fill up the dams one need not worry about the generation of electricity. However, while constructing dams one has to keep in mind a few things.

1. Not to affect large areas of agricultural land
2. To safeguard the human habitation around the dam
3. To ensure that vegetation is not submerged under water in the dams giving rise to air pollution on rotting.

OR
Human beings are on top of any food chain. This means the maximum concentration of several harmful chemicals get accumulated in the human bodies. This is also called biological magnification. We have seen how water is polluted by different substances. Pesticides and some chemicals are used to protect crops from pests. These enter the soil and the water that flows on this soil. When this water is absorbed by the roots of plants it enters the plants. Similarly when aquatic animals drink water some chemicals enter their bodies too. These chemicals then enter the food chain. As they are not degraded they are gradually accumulated in each trophic level. Finally all of them reach the human bodies. Food grains like rice, wheat, vegetables, fruits, and meat contain varying amounts of pesticide residues. It is difficult to completely remove them by washing. Hence any organism at the top of the food chain is likely to get a fairly large amount of the harmful substances that enter the food chain at every level. So the effect of the various pollutants are maximised in human beings.

SECTION – B

Answer. 22.
10 ml of NaOH solution is completely neutralized by 8 ml of HCl.
We now have 20 ml in NaOH solution. How much of HC1 will be required.
10 ml of NaOH = 8 ml of
HCl 20 ml of NaOH = x ml of HCl
\(\frac { 10 }{ 20 } \) = 8/x or x = \(\frac { 8 x 20 }{ 10 } \)
=16 ml

Answer. 23.
Yes, respiration is an exothermic reaction because during the breakdown of glucose – C₆H₁₂O₆ in the presence of O₂ heat is generated. The reaction results in the formation of CO₂ and H₂O. The energy released during respiration helps the body to perform all its activities.

Answer. 24.
(a) The student observed the process of budding in yeast.

Answer. 25.
When we chew bread it is mixed with saliva in our mouth. Saliva contains the enzyme ptyalin which converts starch to sugar. Ptyalin converts bread particles into sugar and this is responsible for the sweet taste we get in our mouth. Saliva helps to bring together all the chewn food particles and makes it into a ball like structure called bolus which is then swallowed and pushed into the oesophagus.

Answer. 26.
When the object is at infinity in front of a concave mirror its image is formed at the focus of the mirror. So,
Focal length = Distance between the pole and focus
= 33.6 cm 22.6 cm
= 11.0 cm
OR
When a ray of light goes from air to glass it bends towards the normal. So, the.angle of refraction must be less than angle of incidence. The student P is right.

Answer. 27.
Least count = \(\frac { Range }{ Total\quad number\quad of\quad divisions } \) = \(\frac { 2-0 }{ 20 }\) = 0.1 A.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science paper 8 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science paper 8, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Communicative Set 3

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Communicative. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Communicative Set 3

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions

❖ The question papers divided into three sections :
Section A : Reading 20 marks
Section B : Writing and Grammar 30 marks
Section C : Literature 30 marks
❖ All questions are compulsory.
❖ You may attempt any section at a time.
❖ All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION-A : READING
(Attempt all question from this section)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Metal Detectors

1. Have you ever been to a beach ? Did you see a man with a headset pointing a long pole at the ground ? If so, you might have seen a person using a metal detector. People use these devices to find metal.
Metal detectors make magnetic waves. These waves go through the ground. The waves change when they hit metal. Then the device beeps. This lets the person with the device know that a metal is close.
2. The first metal detectors were meant to help miners. They were big. They cost a lot of money. They used a lot of power. And worst of all, they didn’t work well. People kept trying to make them better. It took sometime before it was perfected.
3. Metal detectors got smaller. Now they are light and cheap. They also work better. That is why people bring them to the beach. They can look for rings in the water. They can look for phones in the sand. Metal detectors help them find these things. They usually just find junk though.
4. Metal detectors also protect people. They help to keep guns out of some places. They are in airports. They are in courthouses. Some schools use them. They help guards look for weapons. Guards use special wands to find metal on a person.
5. These devices save lives in other ways too. During wars, people plant bombs in the ground. When the war ends, they don’t clean up their messes. This is unsafe for the people who live in those places. Others use metal detectors to find bombs. They remove them and help the people.
6. These devices also make clothes safer. It sounds funny, but it’s true. Most clothes are made in big factories. There are lots of needles in these places. Needles break from time to time. They get stuck in the clothes. They would poke people trying them on. They don’t though. That’s because our clothes are scanned for metal. Isn’t that nice ? Let’s hear it for metal detectors. They make the world a safer place.

1.1. Attempt any eight of the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read : [1 x 8 = 8]
(i) Which were the two problems with the first metal detectors ?
(ii) How is the main idea best described in the second paragraph ?
(iii) How do metal detectors make clothing safer ?
(iv) Why were metal detectors first used ?
(v) How do metal detectors help soldiers ?
(vi) Why do people bring metal detectors to the beach ?
(vii) How did metal detectors get better over time ?
(viii) In what manner is the metal detector used,in the war ?
(ix) Name three other places where metal detectors are used.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [12]
1. Neil Armstrong, the most famous of the astronauts on Apollo 11, has been called the ultimate professional. He was hired to do a job. He did the job and then he went home and kept quiet about it. In 40 years, he gave two interviews. But how can the man who first set foot on the Moon, a hero to millions of people, remains such a mystery ?
2. People like Armstrong often develop their interests at a young age. He followed a career built on a passion for flying that he developed in his childhood in the 1930s. He learnt to fly before he had graduated from high school in Wapakoneta, Ohio. He then did a course in aerospace engineering at Purdue University in Indiana, sponsored by the United States Navy, which meant that Armstrong was obliged to serve as a naval pilot for three years. He saw action almost immediately, flying 78 missions in the war in Korea.
3. He left the Navy in 1952 and two years later got a job with the Lewis Flight Propulsion Laboratory where he flew experimental aircraft. He reached speeds of 6,615 kilometres an hour and altitudes of over 200,000 feet. When he decided to become an astronaut is not clear. Certainly, it was not his ambition to be famous. An extremely talented pilot, his aim was simply to push the boundaries of flight.
4. He was selected for a space plane pilot training programme in 1960 but shortly after news began to circulate that NASA was looking for astronauts for their Apollo programme. Incredibly excited, he applied for the job and in 1962 was accepted. The rest, as they say, is history.
5. When the astronauts returned from the Apollo 11 Moon landing of July 1969, Armstrong was a worldwide celebrity and could have done anything he wanted—TV shows, public speaking. Instead, he became a teacher at the University of Cincinnati and at the weekend went flying to get away from all the attention. He subsequently worked for two private avionics firms until he retired in 2002. In , 40 years he only gave two interviews. Why ? Certainly he felt fortunate to have had the chance to fulfil his dream but he did not feel any more special than the thousands of people who worked on the Apollo space programme. He was just the pilot.

2.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: [2 x 4 = 8]
(i) Why was Neil Armstrong considered as an ultimate professional ?
(ii) Why Neil Armstrong can be called a mystery ?
(iii) Where did his passion of flying take him on the first mission ?
(iv) What are the jobs that Neil Armstrong opted out for teaching in Cincinnati ?
(v) What makes Neil Armstrong different from other celebrities of his stature ?

2.2. On the basis of your reading of the passage, fill in any two of the following blanks with appropriate words/phrases. [1 x 2 = 2]
(i) People like Armstrong often develop their interests
(ii) An extremely talented pilot, his aim was simply
(iii) At the weekend Neil Armstrong went flying

2.3. Attempt any two of the following. Find out the words that mean the same as below:
[1 x 2 = 2]
(i) Grateful (paragraph 2)
(ii) Elevations (paragraph 3)
(iii) Privileged (paragraph 3)

SECTION-B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR
(Attempt all question from this section)

Question 3.
(a) You are Mohammed Tariq, the purchase manager of Colour World, a store that specialises in paints and is now in need of fresh supply of paints from National Paints. Place your order of enamel, synthetic and white paints. Add details as necessary. [8]

OR

(b) You have received 1,000 cartons of Tube lights but 100 cartons of them are damaged. Write a complaint letter to the supplier stating the fact and ask for a quick replacement.
(Goods received in a damaged condition)

Question 4.
Write a short story, in about 200-250 words, with any one set of the cues given below. Give a suitable title to the story.
Jim had a busy day at school preparing for the school .cultural program. Jim was active in the extra-curricular activities that made him the envy of many… [10]

OR

Rohit, a teenage boy, in love with gadgets was sent by his father to spend his summer holidays in the village near Dehradun. Rohit was not pleased with this idea, because…

Question 5.
Fill in any four of the following blanks choosing the most appropriate option from the ones given below. Write the answers in your answer-sheet against the correct blank numbers.
[1 x 4 = 4]
(a) You………..park your car on the bends, it is illegal.
(i)must
(ii) must not
(iii) may
(iv) may not

(b) She may agree………. you, who knows?
(i) to
(ii) with
(iii) from
(iv) for

(c) We must tidy our classroom as our teacher………….. us to.
(i) asked
(ii) ask
(iii) asking
(iv) ask for

(d) You have to help me as it is too………….work for me.
(i) many
(ii) few
(iii) much
(iv) less

(e) you see the balloon, it’s right there?
(i) may
(ii) could
(iii) should
(iv) can

Question 6.
In the following passage one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing word, in any four sentences of the given paragraph, along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it in the space provided. [1 x 4 = 4]

Question 7.
Rearrange any four of the following word clusters to make meaningful sentences. [1 x 4 = 4]
(a) And/his/ for/ beach/a/ Omar/classmates/ clean-uparrived
(b) Asked/ to/ pairs/in/work/ the/ students/teacher
(c) Ms.Kapoor/ Mr. Johnson/ students/ told/for/the/to/trash/for/bags/ ask
(d) spied/ an/ Omar/shoe/old/ and/put/he/the / trash/shoe/a/bag
(e) unusual/noticed/then/ Omar/ shells/Ms.Kapoor/near

SECTION-C : LITERATURE
(Attempt all question from this section)

Question 8.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write the answer in your answer sheets in one or two lines only.  [1 x 4 = 4]
(a) “We are not complaining, Sir”.
(i) Whose words are these and to whom are they addressed ?
(ii) What are they not complaining about ?
(iii) Why is the author talking to the boys ?
(iv) Find the synonym of the word ‘grumble.’

OR

(b) “But must I confess how I liked him”
(i) Whose words are these and who is he talking about ?
(ii) Why did the poet like the snake ?
(iii) How was it unusual for the poet to like the snake ?
(iv) Find the synonym of the word ‘admit’.

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each: [2 x 4 = 8]
(i) Why did Nicola and Jacopo ask the author to go to the cafe while they went in the Red-roofed villa ?
(ii) Why was Patol Babu initially disappointed when they handed him the dialogue ?
(iii) What happened to the pride declaration of Ozymandias ?
(iv) Discuss Abel Merriweather’s entry while the family are in’mourning.
(v) What are the immediate words of Antony after Caesar is stabbed ?

Question 10.
Attempt any one out of the two following long answer type questions in 100-120 words. [8]
(a) Patol Babu believed in rehearsing well before his shot. Explain.

OR

(b) Show how the poet regrets hitting the snake in the poem ‘Snake’.

Question 11.
(a) Answer the following question based on the prescribed novel text for extended reading in about 200-250 words. [10]

The Diary of a Young Girl

(i) Discuss Anne Frank’s diary remarks on the past and warns about the future.

OR

(ii) Discuss how Anne Frank gets aware of her Jewish heritage and the need to maintain it even after the war.

(b) Answer the following question based on the prescribed novel text for extended reading in about 200-250 words.

The Story of My Life

(i) The story of my life. Discuss Helen Keller’s visit to the Perkins Institute and her experiences.

OR

(ii) Discuss the motif of nature that recurs in “The Story of My Life.”

ANSWERS
SECTION-A

Answer 1.
1.1 (i) The two problems with the first metal detectors were that they were too big and did not work well.
(ii) The second paragraph explains how metal detectors work.
(iii) Metal detectors make sure that broken needles don’t get into clothing by scanning them.
(iv) The metal detectors were initially used to help miners.
(v) They help soldiers find hidden bombs.
(vi) Metal detectors help people find valuable items.
(vii) They became cheaper, became lighter and began to work better.
(viii) Metal detectors are used to clear the mess after war and find bombs that been planted.
(ix) Metal detectors are used in school, courthouses and airports.

Answer 2.
2.1 (i) Neil Armstrong was considered an ultimate professional because whenever he was hired to do a job, he did and never spoke about it.
(ii) Neil Armstrong can be called a mystery because he just gave 2 interviews in a span of 40 years and never spoke about it.
(iii) After his graduation and as a navy pilot, he flew 78 missions in the war in Korea.
(iv) He could have been in TV shows, public speaking or anything he wanted but he chose to be a teacher in the University of Cincinnati.
(v) Neil Armstrong felt fortunate to be a part of Apollo Space Mission but he did not feel special or different from the others. This characteristic makes him different.

2.2 (i) People like Armstrong often develop their interests at a young age.
(ii) An extremely talented pilot, his aim was simply to push the boundaries of flight.
(iii) At the weekend Neil Armstrong went flying to get away from all the attention.

2.3 (i) obliged
(ii) altitude
(iii) fortunate

SECTION-B

Answer 3.
(a)
Colour World,
15, Bamboo Market,
Bengaluru-53
1st September, 20x x
Manager,
Sales Division,
National Paints Co. Ltd.
672, Mount Road, Chennai- 2

Sub. : Order for various paints.

Dear Sir,

Thank you for your quotation and the price list. We are glad to place our order with you for the following items:

Since the above goods are required immediately as our stock is about to exhaust very soon, we request you to send the goods through your vehicle as the carriage inward is supposed to be borne by you.

We shall arrange payment within ten (10) days to comply with the terms. Please send all commercial and financial documents along with the goods. We reserve the right to reject the goods if received late.

Yours faithfully,
Mohammed Tariq Purchase Manager,
Colour world

OR

(b)
Trans-World Lighting
Kalyan Nagar, Bengaluru-43
5th March, 20 xx
Manager
Sales & Service Division Lighting World Ltd,
Brigade Road,
Bengaluru- 40

Sub.: Complaint for goods received in a damaged condition.

Dear Sir,

I want to thank you for your prompt delivery of the ordered Tube lights. Unf ortunately, on opening the carton, we found 100 cartons of Tubelights in a damaged condition. We are not sure whether the damage has been caused by poor handling or wrong packing.
While placing the order, I clearly mentioned that we required these goods quickly and to be handled ‘with care’ while delivery. Although we received the goods in time but 100 cartons of damaged goods caused serious problems to the need of our valued customers. :
Please take back the 100 cartons of damaged goods and provide replacement before 15th April, 20x x, to enable us to satisfy our customers’ need.
We are looking forward to hear you with the said replacement.

Yours faithfully,
Mr. Sathishjain
Sales Manager

Answer 4.

Friends Forever

Jim had a busy day at school preparing for the school cultural program. Jim was active in the extra¬curricular activities that made him the envy of many. As popular as he was, Jim was a very good person. He was courteous and polite to the teachers and all the elders. At the same time he was friendly and helpful to his friends and his classmates.

Rahul did not like this. He was extremely jealous and displeased with all the attention Jim was getting. He was always waiting for an opportunity to bring him down. One day when Jim was about to go to school after the practice, he found that he had a flat tyre in the bicycle he used every day to come to school. When he looked closer he found that the tyre had been slashed. He guessed who might have done that but Jim had always avoided any altercation with Rahul.

He did not complain to the authorities but took the cycle and started walking to get it repaired. On the way, he suddenly saw a crowd that had gathered on the road and he went closer to see what the fuss was all about. He saw Rahul lying down hurt and all were discussing and taking pictures with very few trying to help him. Jim rushed to Rahul’s side, carried him and took him in an auto to the hospital close by. Rahul was taken to the emergency room and given the treatment.

Rahul was soon released and he was ashamed that he had been mean to Jim and asked Jim to forgive him. Rahul, on that day, realised that it was better to make friends than enemies.

OR

My Adventurous Journey

Rohit, a teenage boy, in love with gadgets was sent by his father to spend his summer holidays in the village near Dehradun. Rohit was not pleased with this idea because it meant that he would be cut off from all that he loved. He would be left without his smartphone which hC used so much that he almost got a hunch back peering endlessly at phone. This surely was not a great idea. But he had no choice and so off he went on the train and then had to take a rickety bus to his grandmother’s place.

He was, at first, not so happy but soon the smell of the pine trees blended with pure air and the azure skies to behold made him forget the phone. He soon started admiring the scene, the colours of flowers and the cheerful chatter of the people around him. And suddenly, there was a loud noise and within a splutter the bus’ engine died and along with it Rohit’s phone connection. Rohit’s immediate reaction was to panic and he got out of the bus along with others and walked here and there hoping he would get the signal but not a dot of it could be seen.

Others in the bus, especially a teenage boy who had been observing him, befriended him. His name was Susheel. Susheel took him to the close by local hotel where home food was served. Rohit enjoyed the company and Susheel asked if he was interested in trekking to their village which was not far away. Rohit thoroughly enjoyed the trek and didn’t miss his phone even a bit.

Answer 5.
(a) must not
(b) with
(c) asked
(d) much
(e) can

Answer 6.

Answer 7.
(a) Omar and his classmates arrived for a beach clean-up.
(b) The teacher asked the students to work in pairs.
(c) Ms. Kapoor told the students to ask Mr. Johnson for trash bags.
(d) Omar spied an old shoe and he put the shoe in a trash bag.
(e) Then Omar noticed unusual shells near Ms. Kapoor.

SECTION-C

Answer 8.
(a) (i) These words are spoken by Nicola, one of the two brothers in the story ‘The Two Gentlemen of Verona’. Nicola is speaking these words to the author and his friend.
(ii) The brothers are not complaining about working hard even though they are tired and responding to the author’s question as to why they are working in spite of looking tired.
(iii) The author who is in Verona keep seeing these boys often doing different jobs and he is concerned that two very young boys are working so hard.
(iv) The synonym of the word ‘grumble’ is complain.

OR

(b) (i) These words are written by the poet D.H. Lawrence and he is talking about the snake.
(ii) The poet began to like the familiarity of the snake coming every day to drink water from the water trough and go back into the Earth, like a guest.
(iii) The poet clearly knows that when a human sees a snake, the first response expected from him is to kill the snake but the poet likes the snake and does not want to kill it, at least initially.
(iv) The synonym of the word ‘admit’ is confess.
The brothers do not want the author to see what they were really doing. They wanted to keep
their visit to their sick sister a secret from the author as they did want him to find it.

Answer 9.
(i) The brothers do not want the author to see what they were really doing. They wanted to keep their visit to their sick sister a secret from the author as they did want him to find it.
(ii) Patol Babu who loved acting was thrilled when he got a role to play in a movie but when he was handed the dialogue he saw that, just the word, ‘oh/ was written in it, which made his world crash and wondered that the movie folks were making a joke of him.
(iii) The king of kings, the mighty Ozymandias who looks down upon all the world whether they were mighty or not, of whom others despaired; now lies in ruins with nothing at all to credit for what he once was.
(iv) Abel Merryweather comes down the stair rather merrily, not as expected by the grandchildren and they are stunned and shocked to see him and wonder if he is the real person or his ghost. Abel, on the other hand, wonder why his family looks ashen and jump away from him and they slowly begin asking how he is and all the while he had been lying down in a headache.
(v) Antony declares that Caesar who had been mighty with all his conquests, glories, triumphs and spoils has finally shrunk to receive a Tittle measure’ of land as his grave. He goes on to challenge the senators stating that if they were to find fault in Antony, they can kill him too while they reek of Caesar’s blood.

Answer 10.
(a) Patol Babu starts off with a little impatience, however, when he is told it might take another half an hour before his shot, he goes to the quiet little side street when the shopkeepers had gone to watch the shooting. He wondered why no one rehearsed but we find that he took a lot of pain in rehearsing his line. He cleared his throat, enunciated the syllable in every possible manner and expressed physical reactions such as flinging out his arms, twist his face in pain, the body crouching in pain and surprise at contact. He performed all this in front of a large glass window. He prepared with anticipation and suppressed excitement as he went on to take shot half an hour later.

OR

(b) The poet had been watching the snake come every day to drink water from the water trough where he was staying. He enjoyed the quiet companionship of the snake as it seemed constant in the mornings for the poet which became a pattern. The poet goes through a number of thoughts which vary from killing the snake or just let it be. Though he was amazed by the snake making use of his hospitality as an everyday occurrence, one day he picked a stick and hits it and the moment he does that he regrets thinking how can he be so mean and vulgar and started despising himself for having listened to the voices of human education. He feels that there was no need to hit the snake and is burdened by the thoughts of regret that hangs like an ‘albatross,’ wishing the snake might come back.

Answer 11.
(a) (i) Anne Frank’s diary is not just about the past. It holds true for the present and the future. It is about Nazi Germany, later about Bosnia, Albania, China, Chechenia and above all, it is about us. The diary reflects both the past and the present. Today, we cannot turn a blind eye to racism and discrimination. We need to stand up against acquiescence. There is so much of dehumanising of other human beings going on. Anne Frank’s diary stands as a symbol of the spirit of creativity that thrives despite hatred and horror. It also gives us a signal of what can happen if we allow hate to grow, it will create another disaster in our times. The truth is that Anne died in abject misery with all hopes gone. The desire to love and be loved is all taken away at a young age.
On the other hand, the story defies logic and unlike other persons in hiding, Anne did not cower under boredom or melancholy. She rises above the surroundings, makes inward journeys to expand her horizons. Her voice becomes universal. She holds a beacon and becomes a guardian of the human spirit. She inspires us and make us believe that there can be a better world in spite of all that impedes it.

OR

(ii) As Anne grows she becomes exceptionally self-aware. While things are not as neat as she writes them in her diary, she understands the situation when she grows up a great deal more in the next few months. Anne becomes reflective and honest with herself since she went into hiding.
Another indication that things have changed since 1942 is Peter and Anne’s discussion about being Jewish. This is one of the few entries in the book that discusses Jewish identity. Peter has obviously thought a great deal about what it means for him to be a Jew; he concludes that life would be easier without his Jewishness and plans to conceal his heritage after the war. Anne has apparently never given any thought to this. Although she is like Peter as her Jewishness does not form a central part of her identity but she would not ‘ conceal her heritage like him. To do so would be dishonest and she does not want to be
dishonest. Anne’s sentiment is interesting for a number of reasons. For one, it shows how strong her character is. But it also shows that she has not considered what her life would be , without her Jewish heritage because she does not fully understand just how serious it is for
her to be Jewish in Europe at this time. Her optimism gives hope to all the readers for a world where everyone is valued for who he or she is.

(b) (i) Helen went to Boston by train with her mother and her teacher Miss Sullivan who narrated to her everything she saw outside the window. In Boston, Helen went to the Perkins Institute for the Blind, where she quickly made friends with the other blind children, who used the ‘ manual alphabet just like her. Also, they visited numerous historical sites, like Bunker Hill, so Helen could have lessons in history. Helen made many friends in Boston, but she recalls Mr. William Endicott and his daughter most fondly, remembering visiting their home at Beverley Farms.

Her first journey up north to Boston then stretches her world far beyond the limits she initially perceived for herself, proving that her ailment cannot set any boundaries to confine her. Things like the ocean and the snow were previously only in her imagination, but on 1 these journeys to north, Helen can use her education to experience and interpret them at last.

She notes on how wonderful it was to be around children just like her, who know the struggles she faces as a person who cannot see. While Helen has wonderful companions in her family and her teachers, there is something truly heartening about being around people who can not only sympathise, but also truly understand the way Helen operates.

OR

(ii) A recurring motif in this memoir is Helen’s relationship with nature. She is happiest when interacting with the natural world, and we see this when she moves among the fall foliage , at Fern Quarry, when she visits the Niagara Falls she discusses her fascination with learning physical geography and visiting Central Park while living in New York. Nature is something that Helen has always been able to experience, even when many other things in her world were closed off to her. Her senses of touch and smell are enough to give her a full idea of the beauty and power of the outdoors and being outside soothes her in a way that a manmade environment cannot.

After the Perkins Institute closed for the summer, Miss Sullivan and Helen went to spend ‘ their vacation on Cape Cod at Brewster. Helen had longed to see the ocean for so long because of a book she had read and it was just as powerful as she imagined. When she went in for the first time, she slipped on a rock and was pulled around by some waves, but her , teacher grabbed her before long and it did not taint her fascination with the sea. Her favourite memories of that summer are sitting on the seashore, smelling the sea air.

Her fascination with nature gives the reader yet another hint to stay connected to nature more than ever before.

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